Correct me if I'm wrong (does happen), Paul up to this point has never been to Rome. He's writing to the Christians in Rome so that means he didn't convert any of the Gentiles there.
Thanks for pointing this out - I will have to look further, so I don't say the
wrong conclusion (does happen, so now I s-l-o-w-l-y 'take my time').
I do know that the '
religion I grew up in' tried to
foist upon me that "Peter
was the first pope
in Rome" but, when I checked the long list of
names
in Romans 16 =
not found. Thus, one of several reasons I have abandoned
all 'religions' with this motto: Just
stay with The Scriptures! Amen?
Now, on to:
If we look at those two verses you referenced, they point out that Paul is an apostle to a particular group of people. I understand this as they are his primary mission but not only to them. As we see in his actions, he usually starts with the Jews when he gets into town. He doesn't just go to the Gentiles.
I see the same for the 12. Jews are their primary mission but they are not only to the Jews. The first Gentile converts were done by Peter, not Paul.
Precious friend, yes, agree, God
Sent Peter (Acts 10) to the
first Gentile converts,
and, we
should also
notice,
probably For God's Good Reason, 'the
timing' was
after Paul Was Saved/Chosen/Called In Acts 9, Correct?
+
I believe we are now going to have a
major problem with "13 apostles
going to all the world with 'the
one gospel'",
because of Paul
penning
This Important /
Inspired Passage about what
Paul calls "
my Gospel"
(Romans 2:16, 16:25, and 2 Timothy 2:8)
Would one not
think the
one gospel "the Exact Same" as Peter's would be
our gospel? So,
All Of God's Words Were
Written 'The Way They Were' for His
Reasons / Thoughts ( "Way Higher"
Than mine Isaiah 55:8-9 ), and
not for
me to
change them to 'what I
think /
reason', Correct?:
"Then fourteen years after I went up again to Jerusalem with
Barnabas, and took Titus with me also. And I went up by revelation,
and communicated unto them that Gospel which I preach among the
Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any
means I should run, or had run, in vain..."
[ Q:
Why would Christ send Paul (By Revelation) to
communicate that
if
there is only one gospel? His Instructions Must Have A Good Reason? ]:
"...But neither Titus, who was with me, being a Greek, was compelled to be circumcised: And that because of false brethren unawares brought in, who
came in privily to spy out our liberty which we have in Christ Jesus, that
they might bring us into bondage:
To whom we gave place by subjection, no, not for an hour; that The
Truth of the Gospel might continue with you. But of these who seemed
to be somewhat, (whatsoever they were, it maketh no matter to me: God
accepteth no man's person) : for they who seemed to be somewhat
in conference added nothing to me:..."
[ The Truth of 'Which' Gospel? The one to Peter, or the
other one to Paul? ]:
"...But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision
was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
(For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the
circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles) :..."
[
Why would God Have To
Delineate between
two ( for them
to 'see' )
if
there is only one? ]
"...And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived
the Grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right
hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto
the circumcision." (Galatians 2:1-9)
Wait! Is this not
disobedience, or does this then mean that the "twelve used
their [ 'binding/loosing' ]
keys of the kingdom ( Matthew 16:19, 18:18 ), to
"loose themselves from
their instructions * to go to '
All the world'" and
only continue 'with their own brethren'? What's up with that? Is that
loosing Also "loosed In Heaven"? For "God's Good Reason"? **
( * "commission" discussed
# 84 in 'Is There More Than one gospel' thread... )
+
Is not this also
harmonious with Paul's 'Final Declaration' to these Jews?:
"For the heart of this people is waxed gross, and their ears are dull
of hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see
with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their
heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them..."
[ ** Is this not the
Point Where God Set Aside the
stumbling / fallen
nation of Israel, and "blinding them" (Romans 11:7, 11)? ]
"...Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent
unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it." (Acts 28:27-28)
Praise God For That! Amen?
Thus, it seems to me that then, this definitely
agrees With Scripture,
Correct?:
"those two verses you referenced, they point out that Paul is an apostle
to a particular group of people."
Great Bible discussion, I just
humbly ask that you don’t take my word
for anything, but that you consider this information in the manner of
the Bereans of old, according to rule # 4
Bible study Rules!:
"...in that they received the Word with all readiness of mind,
and searched the Scriptures daily, whether those things were so.”
(Acts 17:11).
Amen.