I am also aware of some damaging false teachings going around that make much of the use of the words there. He tried to argue that a woman who was 'put away' was not legally divorced. Does that fit Matthew 19? Clearly not.
A while back, a website promoted the teaching that Jesus was merely opposing divorce without a certificate. That's sophistry, which can be debunked by looking at the English translations of the passage that use different English words for the Greek words. I've seen this erroneous teaching repeated on discussion forums.
Let us look at Matthew 19. I use the KJV 2000 Bible translation, which preserves the distinction between 'divorce' and 'put away' without the Elizabethan grammar.
Matthew 19
3 The Pharisees also came unto him, testing him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? 4 And he answered and said unto them, Have you not read, that he who made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they two shall be one flesh? 6 Therefore they are no more two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder. 7 They said unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 8 He said unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts allowed you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, commits adultery: and whoever marries her who is put away does commit adultery. 10 His disciples said unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
If a man just kicked his wife out of the house and sent her away, he 'puts her away', but that wasn't the legal way it happened. And that is not the topic of debate in Matthew 24. Now, this website was promoting the idea that 'put away' really means 'put away without a certificate' and that Jesus was just saying if you expel your wife without giving her a certificate of divorce and marry someone else, you commit adultery. But that does not fit the actual conversation, the scriptures they were discussing.
The Pharisees asked Jesus if it was legal to put away a wife for any cause. There were two main groups of Pharisees, the Hillel school and the Shammai school. Hillel had taught a man could divorce his wife if she displeased him, even if she had burnt the bread. Shammai taught a man may divorce his wife if she did something indecent. Was the 'any cause' idea of Hillel right or not? The Pharisees ask if a man could divorce his wife for any cause. Jesus referred back to Genesis, two shall be one flesh. What God has joined together, He argued, let not man separate.
The Pharisees refer to Deuteronomy 24, and ask why Moses allowed putting away(/sending away) a wife with a certificate. It is clear from the Pharisees' question, from the phrases used in the New Testament, and from Deuteronomy that a woman put away with a certificate is indeed put away.
In Matthew 19:9 Jesus says,
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Notice Moses 'suffered you to put away your wives'. How did he allow that? With certificate in hand, or without a certificate? WITH a certificate of divorce. That was the putting away the Pharisees talked about. It is what our Lord was referring to, and His response continues into verse 9.
Clearly "WHOSOEVER shall put away his wife" certainly INCLUDES those who do so with a certificate. Since that is the very topic in question based on verse 8, there should be no question at all. The issue of putting away a wife without a certificate is not mentioned.
The Pharisees did not recognize putting away a wife without a certificate as legitimate.
As mentioned above, Greek has two words associated with divorce. One has to do with the legal aspect of it. Another word, ἀπολύσῃ (apolysē) can be used for 'send away', but is also used for sending away as a word for divorce. I have found an example of the word being used that way outside of the New Testament during that era.
You may notice that many Bible scholars who know Greek do not make much of the two different words used for divorce in Matthew 19 and other passage. It may just because the distinction from the words doesn't create some doctrine that allows for free divorce and remarriage, and since it isn't relevant to such an idea, that teacher does not bring up the distinction.
I don't have good access to documents with Koine Greek apart from the New Testament, but I was able to find this.
I'll include a translation with a bit more commentary after the phrase translated 'Jewish laws'from the Greek above.
"10. But some time afterward, when Salome happened to quarrel with Costobarus, she sent him a bill of divorce, and dissolved her marriage with him. (16) Though this was not according to the Jewish laws. For with us it is lawful for an husband to do so: but a wife," from http://penelope.uchicago.edu/josephus/ant-15.html
A while back, a website promoted the teaching that Jesus was merely opposing divorce without a certificate. That's sophistry, which can be debunked by looking at the English translations of the passage that use different English words for the Greek words. I've seen this erroneous teaching repeated on discussion forums.
Let us look at Matthew 19. I use the KJV 2000 Bible translation, which preserves the distinction between 'divorce' and 'put away' without the Elizabethan grammar.
Matthew 19
3 The Pharisees also came unto him, testing him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? 4 And he answered and said unto them, Have you not read, that he who made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they two shall be one flesh? 6 Therefore they are no more two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder. 7 They said unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 8 He said unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts allowed you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, commits adultery: and whoever marries her who is put away does commit adultery. 10 His disciples said unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
If a man just kicked his wife out of the house and sent her away, he 'puts her away', but that wasn't the legal way it happened. And that is not the topic of debate in Matthew 24. Now, this website was promoting the idea that 'put away' really means 'put away without a certificate' and that Jesus was just saying if you expel your wife without giving her a certificate of divorce and marry someone else, you commit adultery. But that does not fit the actual conversation, the scriptures they were discussing.
The Pharisees asked Jesus if it was legal to put away a wife for any cause. There were two main groups of Pharisees, the Hillel school and the Shammai school. Hillel had taught a man could divorce his wife if she displeased him, even if she had burnt the bread. Shammai taught a man may divorce his wife if she did something indecent. Was the 'any cause' idea of Hillel right or not? The Pharisees ask if a man could divorce his wife for any cause. Jesus referred back to Genesis, two shall be one flesh. What God has joined together, He argued, let not man separate.
The Pharisees refer to Deuteronomy 24, and ask why Moses allowed putting away(/sending away) a wife with a certificate. It is clear from the Pharisees' question, from the phrases used in the New Testament, and from Deuteronomy that a woman put away with a certificate is indeed put away.
In Matthew 19:9 Jesus says,
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Notice Moses 'suffered you to put away your wives'. How did he allow that? With certificate in hand, or without a certificate? WITH a certificate of divorce. That was the putting away the Pharisees talked about. It is what our Lord was referring to, and His response continues into verse 9.
Clearly "WHOSOEVER shall put away his wife" certainly INCLUDES those who do so with a certificate. Since that is the very topic in question based on verse 8, there should be no question at all. The issue of putting away a wife without a certificate is not mentioned.
The Pharisees did not recognize putting away a wife without a certificate as legitimate.
As mentioned above, Greek has two words associated with divorce. One has to do with the legal aspect of it. Another word, ἀπολύσῃ (apolysē) can be used for 'send away', but is also used for sending away as a word for divorce. I have found an example of the word being used that way outside of the New Testament during that era.
You may notice that many Bible scholars who know Greek do not make much of the two different words used for divorce in Matthew 19 and other passage. It may just because the distinction from the words doesn't create some doctrine that allows for free divorce and remarriage, and since it isn't relevant to such an idea, that teacher does not bring up the distinction.
I don't have good access to documents with Koine Greek apart from the New Testament, but I was able to find this.
Josephus describes a woman getting a divorce similarly, as in (4)
καὶ πέμπει μὲν εὐθὺς αὐτῷ γραμμάτιον ἀπολυομένη τὸν γάμον οὐ κατὰ τοὺς Ἰουδαίων νόμους·
And she immediately sent a brief letter, dissolving the marriage, not according to Jewish laws (Antiquities 15.259)..
καὶ πέμπει μὲν εὐθὺς αὐτῷ γραμμάτιον ἀπολυομένη τὸν γάμον οὐ κατὰ τοὺς Ἰουδαίων νόμους·
And she immediately sent a brief letter, dissolving the marriage, not according to Jewish laws (Antiquities 15.259)..
"10. But some time afterward, when Salome happened to quarrel with Costobarus, she sent him a bill of divorce, and dissolved her marriage with him. (16) Though this was not according to the Jewish laws. For with us it is lawful for an husband to do so: but a wife," from http://penelope.uchicago.edu/josephus/ant-15.html
If you get into a relationship with someone who says he (or she) is a Christian, and you are moving towards marriage, I would encourage you to discuss their beliefs about marriage and divorce. If it's a man who believes he is justified to give you a certificate and marry someone else, and that God is fine with that, and he cannot be persuaded otherwise, you would probably do well to break it off with him.
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