ἀπολύσῃ
I'm not touchy...so don't touch me. And I KNOW Jesus's words well....obviously better than you. Because you don't know the difference between "putting away" a wife and divorcing a wife. And when I see you winding up to attack the biblically illiterate and downtrodden. People using the scriptures like a weapon to beat the other people with...I tend to get angry.
Take a deep breath. Try to be aware of yourself and self-assess. Are you being aggressive, and maybe a bit obnoxious? Do you know what you are talking about?
Look at the translation I used in the OP. I can see that there is a distinction between the words translated 'divorce' and 'put away' in the OP. I was looking for a translation that used modern language (without the -eth) endings that preserved the distinction between those two words to allow for discussion of that topic. The King James 2000 Bible is not widely used, but I finally found it on the second page of translations of the verse to capture that distinction. So I am aware of the use of the worlds. Even witha Bible translation that captures this distinction, you still seemed 'triggered.'
I am also aware of some damaging false teachings going around that make much of the use of the words there. He tried to argue that a woman who was 'put away' was not legally divorced. Does that fit Matthew 19? Clearly not.
A while back, a website promoted the teaching that Jesus was merely opposing divorce without a certificate. That's sophistry, which can be debunked by looking at the English translations of the passage that use different English words for the Greek words. I've seen this erroneous teaching repeated on discussion forums.
If a man just kicked his wife out of the house and sent her away, he 'puts her away', but that wasn't the legal way it happened. And that is not the topic of debate in Matthew 24. Now, this website was promoting the idea that 'put away' really means 'put away without a certificate' and that Jesus was just saying if you expel your wife without giving her a certificate of divorce and marry someone else, you commit adultery. But that does not fit the actual conversation, the scriptures they were discussing.
The Pharisees asked Jesus if it was legal to put away a wife for any cause. There were two main groups of Pharisees, the Hillel school and the Shammai school. Hillel had taught a man could divorce his wife if she displeased him, even if she had burnt the bread. Shammai taught a man may divorce his wife if she did something indecent. Was the 'any cause' idea of Hillel right or not? The Pharisees ask if a man could divorce his wife for any cause. Jesus referred back to Genesis, two shall be one flesh. What God has joined together, He argued, let not man separate.
The Pharisees refer to Deuteronomy 24, and ask why Moses allowed
putting away(/sending away) a wife
with a certificate. It is clear from the Pharisees' question, from the phrases used in the New Testament, and from Deuteronomy that a woman put away with a certificate is indeed put away.
In Matthew 19:9 Jesus says,
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Notice Moses 'suffered you to put away your wives'. How did he allow that? With certificate in hand, or without a certificate? WITH a certificate of divorce. That was the putting away the Pharisees talked about. It is what our Lord was referring to, and His response continues into verse 9.
Clearly "WHOSOEVER shall put away his wife" certainly INCLUDES those who do so with a certificate. Since that is the very topic in question based on verse 8, there should be no question at all. The issue of putting away a wife without a certificate is not mentioned.
The Pharisees did not recognize putting away a wife without a certificate as legitimate.
As mentioned above, Greek has two words associated with divorce. One has to do with the legal aspect of it. Another word, ἀπολύσῃ (apolysē) can be used for 'send away', but is also used for sending away as a word for divorce. I have found an example of the word being used that way outside of the New Testament during that era.
You may notice that many Bible scholars who know Greek do not make much of the two different words used for divorce in Matthew 19 and other passage. It may just because the distinction from the words doesn't create some doctrine that allows for free divorce and remarriage, and since it isn't relevant to such an idea, that teacher does not bring up the distinction.
I don't have good access to documents with Koine Greek apart from the New Testament, but I was able to find this.
Josephus describes a woman getting a divorce similarly, as in (4)
- καὶ πέμπει μὲν εὐθὺς αὐτῷ γραμμάτιον ἀπολυομένη τὸν γάμον οὐ κατὰ τοὺς Ἰουδαίων νόμους·
And she immediately sent a brief letter, dissolving the marriage, not according to Jewish laws (Antiquities 15.259)..
I'll include a translation with a bit more commentary after the phrase translated 'Jewish laws'from the Greek above.
"10. But some time afterward, when Salome happened to quarrel with Costobarus, she sent him a bill of divorce, and dissolved her marriage with him. (16) Though this was not according to the Jewish laws. For with us it is lawful for an husband to do so: but a wife," from http://penelope.uchicago.edu/josephus/ant-15.html
How many wives could a Jewish man have?
What was the punishment called for by Moses for an adulterous wife?
In the Old Testament, there was not a law given capping the number of wives. The king was not allowed to have many wives. Solomon didn't follow that. He had lots of horses also, and the king was not allowed to accumulate horses. But the Lord Jesus pointed back to the original intention for marriage, two shall be one flesh.
Jewish culture in the first century in the Roman empire was largely monogamous, or at least serially monogamous.
The law of Moses called for death for the male and female adulterer.
What was the LAW in the Old Testament concerning divorce?
I referred to it above in the discussion of Matthew 19. The actual law is for a first husband not to take his wife back after he had given a certificate and put her away and she had married another man and got divorced again or he died, or else it would pollute the land. The Pharisees took the stuff about the certificate of divorce as a command. Jesus taught that Moses allowed divorce due ot the hardness of their hearts.
What happened in Ezra with the foreign wives?
I know about that, too. They sent them away. There were certain people-groups the Israelites were not allowed to intermarry with. Priests were not allowed to marry foreigners. If all the Egyptian women in the passage were married to priest, Ezra's actions make sense.
You claim to know scriptures....but you really don't seem to know how to put them together well. And how and why is God different from the Old Testament vx the Jesus in the New Testament?
Hint: God never changes and Jesus always saves. Gospel means literally "Good News"....not new condemnation and new rules for measuring how people fail.
The Gospel also does not mean making sinful decisions. If I were to post a message warning men about the temptations to fornicate or to commit adultery with their neighbor's wives, would you accuse me of not believing that God forgives or Jesus saves.
