How do you reconcile the first Commandment with the trinity?

[Webers.Home]

.

Could you please explain who the speaker was at Exodus 20:22? "Then the
Lord said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, "You
yourselves have seen that I have spoken to you from heaven."

The Hebrew word translated "the Lord" in that passage is Yehovah-- a.k.a.
Jehovah, a.k.a. Yahweh --which is a phonetic way of pronouncing the four
letter tetragrammaton YHVH.

Also, who is the speaker in the New Testament at Mark 1:11? "and a voice
came out of the heavens; "Thou art My beloved Son, in Thee I am well
pleased.

According to 2Pet 1:16-18, the voice was audible, i.e. heard by Peter and his
friends with their own ears. That being the case, then I have to assume it
was Jehovah doing what he has always done since the very beginning, to
wit: speaking as the Father and speaking for the Father. (cf. Matt 3:16)

NOTE: I strongly suspect that new arrivals in Heaven are whisked away to a
sort of Bible camp where their mistakes are corrected, and all the blanks
filled in, so that when they're released into general population there will be
no quarrelling and no debating.
_

 

[HealthAndHappiness]

Do you believe they are not contradictory? Why?
Do you rely on faith to believe they are consistent with each other? Is that an excuse or a reason?

Inquiring minds want to know! Leave your answers below, eh.

 

[bluto]

.


The Hebrew word translated "the Lord" in that passage is Yehovah-- a.k.a.
Jehovah, a.k.a. Yahweh --which is a phonetic way of pronouncing the four
letter tetragrammaton YHVH.



According to 2Pet 1:16-18, the voice was audible, i.e. heard by Peter and his
friends with their own ears. That being the case, then I have to assume it
was Jehovah doing what he has always done since the very beginning, to
wit: speaking as the Father and speaking for the Father. (cf. Matt 3:16)

NOTE: I strongly suspect that new arrivals in Heaven are whisked away to a
sort of Bible camp where their mistakes are corrected, and all the blanks
filled in, so that when they're released into general population there will be
no quarrelling and no debating.
_

The following is what you stated: "
His actual personal utterances,
were never heard even once by human beings in the Old Testament-- not
one human being, not one time: not ever. He has, in fact, communicated
with human beings via the speech of a mysterious being in the Old
Testament known as Jehovah, a.k.a. Yahweh. "

I just gave you an instance where Moses actually heard the voice of the Lord at Exodus 20:22. How do you explain this contradiction or yours? And where did you get this business of new arrivals are whisked away to some sort of Bible camp? I'm not asking for speculations/opinions, I want facts or proof to support what you say. Lastly, have you ever heard of the angel of the Lord in the Old Testament?

I ask because he called out to Abraham out of the heavens two times at Genesis 22:11 and at vs 15. Read what he said to Abraham. Who do you think this is?

In Him,
bluto

 

[Magenta]

Some may find this (<= link) edifying .

 

[TheLearner]

Do you believe they are not contradictory? Why?
Do you rely on faith to believe they are consistent with each other? Is that an excuse or a reason?

Inquiring minds want to know! Leave your answers below, eh.

https://www.calvarychapelboston.com/Biblical Basis Trinity Bowman.pdf

Part of the definition of the Trinity is there is one G_d.

 

[TheLearner]

Do you believe they are not contradictory? Why?
Do you rely on faith to believe they are consistent with each other? Is that an excuse or a reason?

Inquiring minds want to know! Leave your answers below, eh.

https://www.calvarychapelboston.com/Biblical Basis Trinity Bowman.pdf

 

[JohnDB]

But we don't do modalism or pantheism either.

 

[Webers.Home]

.

I just gave you an instance where Moses actually heard the voice of the Lord
at Exodus 20:22. How do you explain this contradiction or yours?

Well; I do regret that my limited writing skills have only served to cause you
a certain amount of confusion. Perhaps someone hereabouts can take over
payments for me and help resolve the difficulty you're experiencing.

Pleasant Journey
_

 

[bluto]

.



Well; I do regret that my limited writing skills have only served to cause you
a certain amount of confusion. Perhaps someone hereabouts can take over
payments for me and help resolve the difficulty you're experiencing.

Pleasant Journey
_

Your the one that is having difficulty in answering simple and logical questions. You make statements and then when asked to reconcile those statements with the Bible you blame me.

Again,
The following is what you stated: "
His actual personal utterances,
were never heard even once by human beings in the Old Testament-- not
one human being, not one time: not ever. He has, in fact, communicated
with human beings via the speech of a mysterious being in the Old
Testament known as Jehovah, a.k.a. Yahweh. "

I gave you a reference (and there are others) of Moses (for example) of hearing God speak from heaven, please reconcile this with what you said above? Also, I gave you Genesis 22 where the angel of the Lord calling out from heaven to Abraham two times, who is this mysterious character known as the angel of the Lord?

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto

 

[CS1]

Why does God have to be three persons? Why can't He only be one?

the word of God shows us God has three Personalities that are still God in all three and yet HE is one.

 

[Webers.Home]

.
I am totally baffled how the creator per John 1:1-3 came into the world as
one of Adam's biological descendants.

The thing is: Adam was a created being constructed from soil, i.e. dirt. So
then, if true that the Word's flesh per John 1:14 biologically descended from
Adam per Rom 1:3, then the Word's flesh owes its existence to the very same
dirt that was used to construct Adam.

In other words Jesus-- a.k.a. the Son of Man --is a created being just like all
the rest of Adam's biological descendants; and he was barred from Heaven
per 1Cor 15:50 till his body first underwent the same miraculous
transformation pending for his followers per 1Cor 15:51-52 & 1Thess 4:16-17.

Most Christians will readily attest their belief that Jesus is fully God and fully
Man when in reality they only believe he was some sort of divine hominid,
i.e. a demigod.
_

 

[CS1]

.
I am totally baffled how the creator per John 1:1-3 came into the world as
one of Adam's biological descendants.

The thing is: Adam was a created being constructed from soil, i.e. dirt. So
then, if true that the Word's flesh per John 1:14 biologically descended from
Adam per Rom 1:3, then the Word's flesh owes its existence to the very same
dirt that was used to construct Adam.

In other words Jesus-- a.k.a. the Son of Man --is a created being just like all
the rest of Adam's biological descendants; and he was barred from Heaven
per 1Cor 15:50 till his body first underwent the same miraculous
transformation pending for his followers per 1Cor 15:51-52 & 1Thess 4:16-17.

Most Christians will readily attest their belief that Jesus is fully God and fully
Man when in reality they only believe he was some sort of divine hominid,
i.e. a demigod.
_

No, he is not that is unbiblical


One Adam was formed out of the clay of the Earth. Did not become a living soul until God Breatheerd Life into him


Jesus and HIS Life were and are Eternal before The Holy Spirit entered Mary. AS Adam is the first kind of Created man with sin

Jesus is the Eternal kind without sin. Jesus is God because He said so. And He is a man because he was born one YET Not of the will of the flesh or by man.

 

[Webers.Home]

.
It's actually a fairly simple task to prove Jesus is David's biological
descendant.

● Rom 1:3 . . . His son; descended from David according to the flesh

The Greek word translated "descended" in that passage is a bit ambiguous
because it can refer to spiritual posterity as well as to biological; for
example:

● Gal 3:29 . . If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendant,

That descendant is obviously spiritual; whereas David's is biological because
it's "according to the flesh" i.e. his physical human body.

* Seeing as Jesus' dad Joseph played no role in his son's conception, and his
wife Mary was a virgin at the time, then Jesus' biological connection to David
defaults thru his mother.

Now, the thing is: if true that Mary's baby is David's biological posterity, and
if true that David is Adam's biological posterity; then it must be that Jesus
too is Adam's biological posterity, viz: Jesus' human origin was the very dust
with which the human race was constructed in the very beginning per
Genesis 2:7

FAQ: From whence did baby Jesus obtain a Y chromosome for his male
gender?

REPLY: In the beginning, Eve's entire body-- inside and out, front to back,
top to bottom, and side to side --was constructed with material taken from
Adam's body. (Gen 2:21-22) So if God could construct an entire woman
from material taken from a man's body, then it shouldn't be too difficult for
Him to construct a teensy little chromosome from a woman's body.

Seeing as how Eve is the mother of all women (Gen 3:20 & Acts 17:26) then
any material taken from Mary's body to construct a Y chromosome for baby
Jesus would be owed to Eve's body; and by construction: Adam's body.

The beauty of it is that a Y chromosome constructed with material taken
from Mary's body wouldn't be an alien substance created ex nihilo; but
would be 100% natural, and easily traceable all the way back to Eve, and
from thence to the very dust that was used to construct Adam's body.

I sincerely believe that what I suggest herein actually took place when the
power of the Most High overshadowed Jesus' mom per Luke 1:35; and if my
suggestion is true, then little Jesus was thoroughly a Jew-- biologically
descended not only from David and Abraham as all other Hebrews, but also
from the Man that the Word created in the book of Genesis.

● Heb 2:17 . . He had to be made like his brethren in every way.
_

 

[Webers.Home]

.
FAQ: Why make a fuss over Jesus' biological origin?

REPLY: Jesus' genealogy is relatively unimportant to the average Gentile,
whereas very important to Jews because only David's biological posterity
qualify to ascend his throne and govern the land of Israel.

● Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn
from it: "Of the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"

● Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the
patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us
unto this day. Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn
with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he
would raise up Christ to sit on his throne.
_

 

[bluto]

Oh boy? After reading all your post I find it necessary to explain the "birds and bees" to you as it pertains to Jesus Christ. To start off with the Trinitarian answer to your post is that Jesus Christ, the Son of the Father, HAS NO BIOLOGICAL FATHER. God does not have "biology," that is to say flesh and DNA. The body of Jesus was biologically a product of Mary and Mary alone.

Did you ever notice that Jesus Christ often referred to Himself as the, "Son of Man" and as the "Son of God." Do you know why? He's the Son of Man on His mothers side and her nature is human. He's the Son of God on His Father's side and His nature is deity. This is why the Son has two natures, one on His mothers side and one on His Father's side. The fact of the matter is that the birth of the Son was not the result of procreation.

Trinitarians properly teach that the birth of the Son of God was the result of an incarnation. This means that the Father was and is the Father of the Son because the Father always was the Father of the Son (which is why the Father is called the Father and the Son is called the Son). The Holy Spirit was the agent in the incarnation of the Son, not in procreation. Once again, God has no DNA. Jesus was related biologically only to Mary. He had no biological father.

Another thing of note is Jesus stated that He came down from heaven. John 6:38, "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of HIM WHO SENT ME." Then at John 6:51 Jesus states, "I am the living bread that came down out of heaven etc." This also means He was not a created being like some of the cults believe and others. Now Webbers.Home, you can prove me wrong in all of this by giving me an example of a son who does not share the same nature as his father. And lastly, this is why I can say below,

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto

 

[TheLearner]

Your the one that is having difficulty in answering simple and logical questions. You make statements and then when asked to reconcile those statements with the Bible you blame me.

Again,
The following is what you stated: "
His actual personal utterances,
were never heard even once by human beings in the Old Testament-- not
one human being, not one time: not ever. He has, in fact, communicated
with human beings via the speech of a mysterious being in the Old
Testament known as Jehovah, a.k.a. Yahweh. "

I gave you a reference (and there are others) of Moses (for example) of hearing God speak from heaven, please reconcile this with what you said above? Also, I gave you Genesis 22 where the angel of the Lord calling out from heaven to Abraham two times, who is this mysterious character known as the angel of the Lord?

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto

first communication with Adam and Eve comes to mind

 

[TheLearner]

start at #31

 

[TheLearner]

Luke 1:35
And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

His flesh was created, concieved by God the Holy Spirit.

 

[Webers.Home]

.
The logos spoken of in John 1:1-3 is a sentient being; active during the six
days of creation in the first chapter of Genesis.

I take it then that the logos of John 1:1-3 implies speech rather than
thought or print, because it first shows up in Gen 1:3, and thereafter, like
this:

And God said: "Let there be light."

I am utterly baffled as to how God's speech-- i.e. His utterance --can be so
alive as to have its own divine identity; and then to top it off: His speech has
the ability to come into the world as a fully functioning human being
biologically related to David, Abraham, and Adam's wife Eve.

"I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and
hers: he will crush your head, and you will strike his heel."
_

 

[CS1]

Luke 1:35
And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

His flesh was created, concieved by God the Holy Spirit.

Mary was used to bring forth the physical body of a human being who is Jesus the man who is God.