The Impeccability of Our Lord Jesus Christ

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

IsaiahA

Active member
Jan 24, 2023
114
68
28
#1
Merriam -Webster defines impeccable as "not capable of sinning or liable to sin". The question then arises, how are we to understand the following verse? -

"For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." (Heb 2:18 KJV)

The NRSV translates it "tested" rather than "tempted"; and the Revised English Bible translates "Because he himself has passed through the test of suffering, he is able to help those who are in the midst of their test. (Heb 2:18 REB)

I hold to a highly pure view of Jesus Christ in that He had no inner sin nature to which the temptation could attach itself, so he could not sin. Merriam-Webster defines tempt as "to entice to do wrong by promise of pleasure or gain". There is another verse to consider on this -

"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:" (Jas 1:13 KJV)

On James 1:13 the NRSV and REB keep to the word "tempt" rather than "test".

Orthodox Christianity insists upon the impeccability of Jesus Christ. The Chalcedonian Creed (451 AD) established the orthodox view that Christ has two natures (human and divine) that are unified in one person.

"We, then, following the holy Fathers, all with one consent, teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, the same perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man, of a reasonable [rational] soul and body; consubstantial [co-essential] with the Father according to the Godhead, and consubstantial with us according to the Manhood; in all things like unto us, without sin; begotten before all ages of the Father according to the Godhead, and in these latter days, for us and for our salvation, born of the Virgin Mary, the Mother of God, according to the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ; as the prophets from the beginning [have declared] concerning Him, and the Lord Jesus Christ Himself has taught us, and the Creed of the holy Fathers has handed down to us."

To say Jesus Christ had to be capable of sinning in order to be tempted as we are would require the belief that Jesus Christ inherited the sin nature from Adam, which he did not, Romans 5.

The NRSV and REB change to test is the better understanding of Hebrews 2:18. I believe to deny the impeccability of Jesus Christ drags one into a blasphemous system of belief.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,771
113
#2
To say Jesus Christ had to be capable of sinning in order to be tempted as we are would require the belief that Jesus Christ inherited the sin nature from Adam, which he did not, Romans 5.
Correct. There was nothing within Jesus of Nazareth to respond to any temptations. So while the temptations were real, they had no impact on Christ who is fully God and fully Man. Also the word "tempted" can be translated as "tested". So Christ was "tested" and found to be perfect.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
13,885
5,630
113
#3
Correct. There was nothing within Jesus of Nazareth to respond to any temptations. So while the temptations were real, they had no impact on Christ who is fully God and fully Man. Also the word "tempted" can be translated as "tested". So Christ was "tested" and found to be perfect.
he became flesh , the flesh is what is tempted to sin

Jesus overcame it when his flesh was tempted that’s why it says he was tempted in every way like we are yet he was without sin

 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,771
113
#4
he became flesh , the flesh is what is tempted to sin
You are simply confused because the word "flesh" has two meanings: (1) the human body (flesh, blood, and bones) and (2) the indwelling sin nature within the soul. Of course Christ has a human body, but He did not have a sin nature. Had that been the case, He could not have paid for the sins of the whole world.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,366
13,729
113
#5
If Jesus was not capable of sin, then the temptation in the desert was a sham. Arguing that the word should be translated "tested" is playing with semantics. If He could not fail the test, the test was meaningless.

I hold that Jesus was indeed capable of sin in His human nature. That He did not sin is the victory; He overcame sin because He did not submit to it.

This in no way implies that He inherited a sin nature from Adam; rather, He likely had the nature that Adam had prior to the fall.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
13,885
5,630
113
#6
Merriam -Webster defines impeccable as "not capable of sinning or liable to sin". The question then arises, how are we to understand the following verse? -

"For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." (Heb 2:18 KJV)

The NRSV translates it "tested" rather than "tempted"; and the Revised English Bible translates "Because he himself has passed through the test of suffering, he is able to help those who are in the midst of their test. (Heb 2:18 REB)

I hold to a highly pure view of Jesus Christ in that He had no inner sin nature to which the temptation could attach itself, so he could not sin. Merriam-Webster defines tempt as "to entice to do wrong by promise of pleasure or gain". There is another verse to consider on this -

"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:" (Jas 1:13 KJV)

On James 1:13 the NRSV and REB keep to the word "tempt" rather than "test".

Orthodox Christianity insists upon the impeccability of Jesus Christ. The Chalcedonian Creed (451 AD) established the orthodox view that Christ has two natures (human and divine) that are unified in one person.

"We, then, following the holy Fathers, all with one consent, teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, the same perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man, of a reasonable [rational] soul and body; consubstantial [co-essential] with the Father according to the Godhead, and consubstantial with us according to the Manhood; in all things like unto us, without sin; begotten before all ages of the Father according to the Godhead, and in these latter days, for us and for our salvation, born of the Virgin Mary, the Mother of God, according to the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ; as the prophets from the beginning [have declared] concerning Him, and the Lord Jesus Christ Himself has taught us, and the Creed of the holy Fathers has handed down to us."

To say Jesus Christ had to be capable of sinning in order to be tempted as we are would require the belief that Jesus Christ inherited the sin nature from Adam, which he did not, Romans 5.

The NRSV and REB change to test is the better understanding of Hebrews 2:18. I believe to deny the impeccability of Jesus Christ drags one into a blasphemous system of belief.
“For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭2:16-18‬ ‭KJV‬‬


“Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:14-16‬ ‭KJV‬‬

jesus walked in our shoes , he took on flesh which is what is tempted , never sinned always overcame the temptation.

It’s actually essential understsnding when God became man he subjected himself to temptation I. Order to show us the example of overcoming

“Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil.

And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. ( he tempts him to break his fast which is fulfillment of prophecy )
And when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread. But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

( he tempts him to leap off the temple to prove he is gods son Jesus replies not to tempt God like jumping offa high building to prove your not lying ) Then the devil taketh him up into the holy city, and setteth him on a pinnacle of the temple, and saith unto him, If thou be the Son of God, cast thyself down: for it is written, He shall give his angels charge concerning thee: And in their hands they shall bear thee up, Lest at any time thou dash thy foot against a stone. Jesus said unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.

Again, the devil taketh him up into an exceeding high mountain, and sheweth him all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them; and saith unto him, All these things will I give thee, if thou wilt fall down and worship me. ( he tempts him to worship him )

Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve. Then the devil leaveth him, and, behold, angels came and ministered unto him.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭4:1-11‬ ‭KJV‬‬


He had to become a man to save man part of being fully a man is being tempted the difference is we all fail and fall into temptation Jesus didn’t though he felt the same temptations we all do in his flesh he walked in the spirit
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
13,885
5,630
113
#7
You are simply confused because the word "flesh" has two meanings: (1) the human body (flesh, blood, and bones) and (2) the indwelling sin nature within the soul. Of course Christ has a human body, but He did not have a sin nature. Had that been the case, He could not have paid for the sins of the whole world.
no I’m not mistaken I’m just allowing the Bible to say what it says

Like this

For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭2:16-18‬ ‭KJV‬‬


“Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:14-16‬ ‭KJV‬‬

See I’m not willing to then argue “ Jesus wasn’t tempted he could t be tempted that’s not t try that’s heresy “

i just accept what is taught there’s no room or need for interpretation it’s all written down to her and learn from

God looked down from heaven and saw that there was no man , no man worthy to intercede for mankind because all were lost in sin there was no man to intercede for us so he came and became a real live man born of a woman born under law , just like we are Jesus is made of flesh , blood and spirit.

Part of being a man is to be subjected to temptations of the flesh in this world , Jesus did that in order to be our intercessor when we are tempted he’s able to strengthen us against it

airs essential Christian doctrine that Jesus was tempted as a man and never sinned that’s what makes him worthy to lay his life down it had to be a man to atone for mans sin

That’s what makes Jesus our high priest he became one of us and overcame now he is our intercessor God saw this

“Yea, truth faileth; and he that departeth from evil maketh himself a prey: and the LORD saw it, and it displeased him that there was no judgment. And he saw that there was no man, and wondered that there was no intercessor:

therefore his arm brought salvation unto him; and his righteousness, it sustained him. For he put on righteousness as a breastplate, and an helmet of salvation upon his head; and he put on the garments of vengeance for clothing, and was clad with zeal as a cloke.”
‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭59:15-17‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Where man had no intercessor before Jesus became a man and overcame sin and death now we do have an intercessor

“Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭8:34‬ ‭KJV‬‬

See how this situation

“And he saw that there was no man, and wondered that there was no intercessor:”

became this situation

“Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.”


Innorder for that to happen Jesus had to become a man live a perfect life not free of any temptation and trial but he went through exactly what we face the difference is that he overcame and never sinned he became the perfect man which makes him worthy tokontercede for the imperfect man
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
13,885
5,630
113
#8
If Jesus was not capable of sin, then the temptation in the desert was a sham. Arguing that the word should be translated "tested" is playing with semantics. If He could not fail the test, the test was meaningless.

I hold that Jesus was indeed capable of sin in His human nature. That He did not sin is the victory; He overcame sin because He did not submit to it.

This in no way implies that He inherited a sin nature from Adam; rather, He likely had the nature that Adam had prior to the fall.
Amen exactly Adam and Eve were also subjected to temptation but they weren’t sinners before they sinned

jesusbos rhe new Adam as far as that goes as Adam and Eve failed when tempted , Jesus when tempted overcame it and never became a sinner which is not man’s true state before sin is man’s true state being able to face temptation and shew it away is man’s inherant nature

We fell into sin by our own way following a lie we became corrupt sinners God didn’t make us like this satan did and our stupidity for following him.

That was a great post thanks for sharing really brought Roman’s 5 to mind

certainly Jesus never sinned nor was he a sinner by nature none of us were until adam cursed us when tempted

Christ is the first man of the new creation who was tempted and never sinned like Adam
 

awelight

Well-known member
Aug 10, 2020
1,629
490
83
69
#9
Merriam -Webster defines impeccable as "not capable of sinning or liable to sin". The question then arises, how are we to understand the following verse? -

"For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." (Heb 2:18 KJV)

The NRSV translates it "tested" rather than "tempted"; and the Revised English Bible translates "Because he himself has passed through the test of suffering, he is able to help those who are in the midst of their test. (Heb 2:18 REB)

I hold to a highly pure view of Jesus Christ in that He had no inner sin nature to which the temptation could attach itself, so he could not sin. Merriam-Webster defines tempt as "to entice to do wrong by promise of pleasure or gain". There is another verse to consider on this -

"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:" (Jas 1:13 KJV)

On James 1:13 the NRSV and REB keep to the word "tempt" rather than "test".

Orthodox Christianity insists upon the impeccability of Jesus Christ. The Chalcedonian Creed (451 AD) established the orthodox view that Christ has two natures (human and divine) that are unified in one person.

"We, then, following the holy Fathers, all with one consent, teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, the same perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man, of a reasonable [rational] soul and body; consubstantial [co-essential] with the Father according to the Godhead, and consubstantial with us according to the Manhood; in all things like unto us, without sin; begotten before all ages of the Father according to the Godhead, and in these latter days, for us and for our salvation, born of the Virgin Mary, the Mother of God, according to the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ; as the prophets from the beginning [have declared] concerning Him, and the Lord Jesus Christ Himself has taught us, and the Creed of the holy Fathers has handed down to us."

To say Jesus Christ had to be capable of sinning in order to be tempted as we are would require the belief that Jesus Christ inherited the sin nature from Adam, which he did not, Romans 5.

The NRSV and REB change to test is the better understanding of Hebrews 2:18. I believe to deny the impeccability of Jesus Christ drags one into a blasphemous system of belief.
This was an enjoyable post to read. I too agree with your points and say Amen.

The true understanding of "Impeccability", in Jesus Christ, is to understand that both His divine nature and human nature were/are perfectly Holy. While Jesus Christ had two natures He was one being. Therefore, for the two natures to be able to coincide as one, they must be Holy.

Jesus was born that "holy thing", (Luke 1:35), and did not share in the fallen nature which came through Adam.

I agree with you, that Jesus could not be "tempted" because He did not possess a temptable nature. Therefore, I have maintained for years, that when the Greek word: πειράζω or it's variants, is encountered in the Text, it should be translated "test or tested" or "trial or tried", when it comes to our Savior. Only when the word is applied to mankind should it be translated "temp or tempted".

I too, become uncomfortable when one argues that Jesus could be tempted but did not sin.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
22,752
8,263
113
#10
This was an enjoyable post to read. I too agree with your points and say Amen.

The true understanding of "Impeccability", in Jesus Christ, is to understand that both His divine nature and human nature were/are perfectly Holy. While Jesus Christ had two natures He was one being. Therefore, for the two natures to be able to coincide as one, they must be Holy.

Jesus was born that "holy thing", (Luke 1:35), and did not share in the fallen nature which came through Adam.

I agree with you, that Jesus could not be "tempted" because He did not possess a temptable nature. Therefore, I have maintained for years, that when the Greek word: πειράζω or it's variants, is encountered in the Text, it should be translated "test or tested" or "trial or tried", when it comes to our Savior. Only when the word is applied to mankind should it be translated "temp or tempted".

I too, become uncomfortable when one argues that Jesus could be tempted but did not sin.
Indeed. Can God sin? Not so you would notice.....:unsure:
I mean, the universe is still here after all.
 

NotmebutHim

Senior Member
May 17, 2015
2,937
1,607
113
48
#12
If Jesus was not capable of sin, then the temptation in the desert was a sham. Arguing that the word should be translated "tested" is playing with semantics. If He could not fail the test, the test was meaningless.

I hold that Jesus was indeed capable of sin in His human nature. That He did not sin is the victory; He overcame sin because He did not submit to it.

This in no way implies that He inherited a sin nature from Adam; rather, He likely had the nature that Adam had prior to the fall.
I agree with you. I believe that Christ's divine nature kept His human nature from giving in to sin. And I was actually going to make the same point about Christ's human nature and Adam's pre-fall nature being the same.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
13,885
5,630
113
#13
This was an enjoyable post to read. I too agree with your points and say Amen.

The true understanding of "Impeccability", in Jesus Christ, is to understand that both His divine nature and human nature were/are perfectly Holy. While Jesus Christ had two natures He was one being. Therefore, for the two natures to be able to coincide as one, they must be Holy.

Jesus was born that "holy thing", (Luke 1:35), and did not share in the fallen nature which came through Adam.

I agree with you, that Jesus could not be "tempted" because He did not possess a temptable nature. Therefore, I have maintained for years, that when the Greek word: πειράζω or it's variants, is encountered in the Text, it should be translated "test or tested" or "trial or tried", when it comes to our Savior. Only when the word is applied to mankind should it be translated "temp or tempted".

I too, become uncomfortable when one argues that Jesus could be tempted but did not sin.
So this bothers you ?

“For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:15‬ ‭KJV‬‬

do you think the Bible should change what it says because it bugs you ? Before any semantics begin though it says he was tempted at every point we are tempted so trying to say “ the word tempted isn’t really the right word “ sort of loses any credibility
 

IsaiahA

Active member
Jan 24, 2023
114
68
28
#14
If Jesus was not capable of sin, then the temptation in the desert was a sham. Arguing that the word should be translated "tested" is playing with semantics. If He could not fail the test, the test was meaningless.

I hold that Jesus was indeed capable of sin in His human nature. That He did not sin is the victory; He overcame sin because He did not submit to it.

This in no way implies that He inherited a sin nature from Adam; rather, He likely had the nature that Adam had prior to the fall.
Come on Dino, think of what you wrote for a minute. You certainly do not mean that. So God the creator and Adam the creation had the same nature before the fall? I believe Adam was created holy, not just neutral and innocent; but I certainly don't think Adam's nature was that of God. God is infallible, but Adam was fallible.
 

IsaiahA

Active member
Jan 24, 2023
114
68
28
#15
So this bothers you ?

“For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:15‬ ‭KJV‬‬

do you think the Bible should change what it says because it bugs you ? Before any semantics begin though it says he was tempted at every point we are tempted so trying to say “ the word tempted isn’t really the right word “ sort of loses any credibility
I find it odd that people use the word "semantics" as if it is a dirty word that usually means word trickery or word games. We MUST use semantics in determining the meaning of texts-

se·man·tics
[səˈman(t)iks]
NOUN
the branch of linguistics and logic concerned with meaning. There are a number of branches and subbranches of semantics, including formal semantics, which studies the logical aspects of meaning, such as sense, reference, implication, and logical form, lexical semantics, which studies word meanings and word relations, and conceptual semantics, which studies the cognitive structure of meaning.
the meaning of a word, phrase, sentence, or text:
"such quibbling over semantics may seem petty stuff"

The Greek used for "tempted" in Hebrews 4:15 is as follows in the Strong's -

πειράζω
peirazō
pi-rad'-zo
From G3984; to test (objectively), that is, endeavor, scrutinize, entice, discipline: - assay, examine, go about, prove, tempt (-er), try.
Total KJV occurrences: 39

From the BDAG -

"of God or Christ, who put people to the test, in a favorable sense (Ps.-Apollod. 3, 7; 7, 4 Zeus puts τὴν ἀσέβειαν of certain people to the test), so that they may prove themselves true J 6:6; Hb 11:17 (Abraham, as Gen 22:1). Also of painful trials sent by God (Ex 20:20; Dt 8:2 v.l.; Judg 2:22; Wsd 3:5; 11:9; Jdth 8:25f) 1 Cor 10:13; Hb 2:18ab; 4:15 (s. πειράω); 11:37 v.l.; Rv 3:10 (SBrown, JBL 85, ’66, 308–14 π.=afflict). Likew. of the measures taken by the angel of repentance Hs 7:1."

Translated in some manner of trial or testing is the use of the word in: ABP, ROTHERHAM'S EMPHASIZED BIBLE, NRSV, REB, BBE, HCSB, NLT
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,771
113
#16
...yet without sin...
This little phrase is what should be clearly understood. It literally means "yet without the sin nature", since the book of Hebrews says that Christ was "holy, harmless, undefiled, and SEPARATE FROM SINNERS".

The reason that Jesus of Nazareth was born of a virgin and conceived by the Holy Ghost is that he would be fully Sinless Man (and fully God at one and the same time). He would be without the sin nature inherited from Adam. So while His temptations were real (externally) there was absolutely no internal response.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,412
6,698
113
#17
If Jesus was not capable of sin, then the temptation in the desert was a sham. Arguing that the word should be translated "tested" is playing with semantics. If He could not fail the test, the test was meaningless.

I hold that Jesus was indeed capable of sin in His human nature. That He did not sin is the victory; He overcame sin because He did not submit to it.

This in no way implies that He inherited a sin nature from Adam; rather, He likely had the nature that Adam had prior to the fall.
Understanding what you have posted, I am only able to be in total agreement. God bless you D.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,366
13,729
113
#18
Come on Dino, think of what you wrote for a minute. You certainly do not mean that. So God the creator and Adam the creation had the same nature before the fall? I believe Adam was created holy, not just neutral and innocent; but I certainly don't think Adam's nature was that of God. God is infallible, but Adam was fallible.
You really should read, rather than reading in.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
59,815
29,194
113
#19
This little phrase is what should be clearly understood. It literally means "yet without the sin nature",
since the book of Hebrews says that Christ was "holy, harmless, undefiled, and SEPARATE FROM SINNERS".
Interesting. So you think the writer of Hebrews made a mistake, and you know better?
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
13,885
5,630
113
#20
This little phrase is what should be clearly understood. It literally means "yet without the sin nature", since the book of Hebrews says that Christ was "holy, harmless, undefiled, and SEPARATE FROM SINNERS".

The reason that Jesus of Nazareth was born of a virgin and conceived by the Holy Ghost is that he would be fully Sinless Man (and fully God at one and the same time). He would be without the sin nature inherited from Adam. So while His temptations were real (externally) there was absolutely no internal response.
Yeah everyone seems to have thier own interpretation of what it says not really being what it says

Jesus had to be tempted like we are in order to be a man and overcome sin

that’s why it specifically says “ he was tempted at all points like we are, yet without sin

“For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:15‬ ‭KJV‬‬

a you guys are making the argument “ our priest Jesus can’t be touched by the feeling of our infirmities and was never tempted like we are “

what the at actually says is our high priest carried out infirmities and he was tempted in all Points just like we are and yet he never sinned

it’s actually explained in those chapters why and how and to what ends he was tempted and how it benefits mankind

either he was tempted at all points like we are or he wasn’t there is no “tempted but not really tempted “

jesus didn’t come in the flesh and coast through his life was hard just like ours is he felt the pull of this world just like we do through his flesh Jesus walked in the spirit not the flesh

being tempted was the first thing he did after receiving the Holy Spirit, but the lure are thirty some years before that also

Jesus was tempted there’s no feeling we feel that he doesn’t understand personally that’s what makes him such a perfect and merciful high priest he related to us , he knows our plight try reading Hebrews and all it says about Jesus priesthood and the. It will actually make sense to you why he subjected himself to temptation in Christ but you will actually learn a lot that you don’t understand now

people miss the part where Jesus became a real live man

“So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, To day have I begotten thee. As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever After the order of Melchisedec.

Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared;

though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; and being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him; called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.

Of whom we have many things to say, and hard to be uttered, seeing ye are dull of hearing.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭5:5-11‬ ‭KJV‬‬

It’s a really good study but it does require us to understand we don’t know everything already