Hell, Sheol, Hades...

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Webers.Home

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I was speaking in keeping to your thought in regard to the comparison of
ordinary and extraordinary fire.

I flunked English my senior year of high school, and was a welder amongst
roughnecks and outlaws on waterfronts and in shops 40 years before retiring
in 2006 so it's to be expected I'd have trouble sometimes figuring what
people are trying to say; especially educated people.
_
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Yes, agree.
Some of us will be glorified before the Millennial Age also.
Right. That's why I'm always careful to express it in the way that I did in my Post #199 (pg 10, last paragraph), where I'd put:

ALL "SAVED" persons are "resurrected" IN TIME for the MK age--NONE LEFT OUT
As you are aware, the "2W" will have been resurrected (and ascended up in to Heaven) at the "6th Trumpet / 2nd Woe" point in the chronology, at a time-slot DISTINCT from when other saints will be;

...and 1Cor15:23 DOES say, "[re: resurrection] But each IN THE OWN ORDER / RANK" (meaning, there doesn't remain only ONE at one singular point in time... There is an "ORDER / RANK" to it);

The ones in Rev20:4b are simply the LAST saints to have DIED (and been resurrected) PRIOR TO the start of the MK age.
The next verse states (similar to v.6's wording also), "THIS is the resurrection the FIRST [ADJECTIVE]"--and "first [ADJECTIVE]" can legit mean "first in QUALITY" (rather than, "first IN TIME"<--though it CAN mean that, since it is talking about "resurrection OF LIFE" [versus "resurrection OF JUDGMENT" Jesus spoke of also in John 5:29; Like, Paul called himself the "CHIEF" of sinners (same Greek word, here... also adjective [G4413 - https://biblehub.com/greek/4413.htm ]), doesn't carry the meaning of "first IN TIME" but "--in QUALITY"], then it is reasonable to understand Rev20:5b,6 in the same way... "first [adj] IN QUALITY" [a "resurrection OF LIFE"] not "first [adj] IN TIME" [for the "2W"--not to mention others--will have been resurrected WELL-PRIOR TO this point in the chronology... so this passage is NOT suggesting: "the first [saints/believers] to have been resurrected" because the "2W" will have been resurrected at a point in time PRIOR [so will have others, at a different point in the chronology])








[hopefully I won't run out of EDIT-time to address the next point... we shall see... READY? GO!... (brb... lol)]


ADDING this:

Are you referring to this verse...

Revelation 20:5
“But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.”

If these are the unsaved dead, the why is this placed under the "first resurrection"?
It only SEEMS so. (common question--good question);

The word "THIS" in v.5b is pointing back to the one John had just "SAW" (in v.4b)... not to the one being MENTIONED as taking place at the future time-slot (1000 yrs later, that he does NOT "SAW" in this context).

Make sense?


It's like saying, "THIS-ONE-HERE" (that you just "SAW" at THIS time-slot)
 

Mem

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I flunked English my senior year of high school, and was a welder amongst
roughnecks and outlaws on waterfronts and in shops 40 years before retiring
in 2006 so it's to be expected I'd have trouble sometimes figuring what
people are trying to say; especially educated people.
_
It is no problem, or I wouldn't have bothered to reply. It wasn't that I didn't struggle to get passing grades in English. Using language in communication has inherent impediments within it even among those well studied in it. I would have never known you'd flunked if you hadn't volunteered the fact. You've only appeared very articulate with an expansive vocabulary, which I will forever venture still to add in my endeavor to communicate more clearly, as it was my failure to do, in this case.
 

oyster67

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...and 1Cor15:23 DOES say, "[re: resurrection] But each IN THE OWN ORDER / RANK" (meaning, there doesn't remain only ONE at one singular point in time... There is an "ORDER / RANK" to it);
I am so glad that you bring this out (that the first resurrection has many stages). Many try to demand that the second resurrection be only the second singular point in time that a resurrection occurs. That would pin down the first resurrection to only one point in time (thus denying the pre-trib rapture.)
 

Nehemiah6

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...so it's to be expected I'd have trouble sometimes figuring what people are trying to say; especially educated people.
So-called "educated people" -- graduates of Harvard, Yale, MIT, etc. -- have recently proven themselves to be the most stupid of all. The evidence is all around us. And they all hate to admit that they were in fact dumber than dumb.
 

oyster67

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May 24, 2014
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The word "THIS" in v.5b is pointing back to the one John had just "SAW" (in v.4b)... not to the one being MENTIONED as taking place at the future time-slot (1000 yrs later, that he does NOT "SAW" in this context).

Make sense?
Yes, it does. Thank you very much. It helps to view v5 as being glued to the end of v4.

I do have one more question, though; What will become of those who are born during the Millenium who become Christians? Is there a verse that mentions them getting glorified bodies at the end of the Millenium or the beginning of the Final State?
 
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And what is the nature of the destruction?

Destruction is a relative term so you understand that?
Collins English Dictionary: destruction: being destroyed...demolition...ruin.

In what way is, say, a car relatively destroyed when an insurance assessor writes it off? Or a ruined building and the authorities say the shell must be razed to the ground? And a dead human body is cremated and the ashes thrown into the sea?
 

TheDivineWatermark

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In Luke 17, the phrase "and DESTROYED [G622] them all" (vv.27,29) is what takes place at the time surrounding Christ's Second Coming to the earth (Rev19... includes those spoken of in Rev19:21 "and the remnant/rest were SLAIN")... which precedes the MK age which follows from that point.

The ones "destroyed [G622]" (at that point) do NOT ENTER the MK age, but instead DIE and go immediately to "hell/hades" at that point.

G622 is also used in Josh11:14LXX, where it says, "And all the spoil of these cities, and the cattle, the children of Israel took for a prey unto themselves; but every man they smote with the edge of the sword, until they had destroyed [G622 - LXX] them, neither left they any to breathe." This means, they were destroyed off the face of the earth (DIED, iow... bodies go "six feet under" so to speak, lol... but not "obliterated"... these show up later at the GWTj, where "hell/hades" DELIVERED UP THE DEAD...). - https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/jos/11/14/p0/t_concl_198014
 

Magenta

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In Luke 17, the phrase "and DESTROYED [G622] them all" (vv.27,29) is what takes place at the time surrounding Christ's Second Coming to the earth (Rev19... includes those spoken of in Rev19:21 "and the remnant/rest were SLAIN")... which precedes the MK age which follows from that point.

The ones "destroyed [G622]" (at that point) do NOT ENTER the MK age, but instead DIE and go immediately to "hell/hades" at that point.

G622 is also used in Josh11:14LXX, where it says, "And all the spoil of these cities, and the cattle, the children of Israel took for a prey unto themselves; but every man they smote with the edge of the sword, until they had destroyed [G622 - LXX] them, neither left they any to breathe." This means, they were destroyed off the face of the earth (DIED, iow... bodies go "six feet under" so to speak, lol... but not "obliterated"... these show up later at the GWTj, where "hell/hades" DELIVERED UP THE DEAD...). - https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/jos/11/14/p0/t_concl_198014
Is this more setting up of straw men so they can be knocked down? @Mem was right.

I have mentioned the resurrection of all at the end of this age quite a few times. So why are you now
speaking as if the first death is what it's all about, when the reality is, it is the second death we speak
of, when those who refuse to acknowledge God are not given more life, and pass into the second death?
 

HeIsHere

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Collins English Dictionary: destruction: being destroyed...demolition...ruin.

In what way is, say, a car relatively destroyed when an insurance assessor writes it off? Or a ruined building and the authorities say the shell must be razed to the ground? And a dead human body is cremated and the ashes thrown into the sea?
What exactly is God doing to people in the Lake of Fire according to you?

Is He ruining the person like a car smashing it to pieces?

Do you really think the spiritual world is the same as the material world?
 

oyster67

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Collins English Dictionary: destruction: being destroyed...demolition...ruin.
What? No vanishing into thin air... like... like... like when Captain Kirk's phaser is set on 'kill'? :oops:
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Is this more setting up of straw men so they can be knocked down? @Mem was right.
Perhaps I'm recalling past threads, where some had suggested that OT usages of the word "destroy / destroying / destroyed" MEANS "annihilated" (as in "no longer EXISTS [anywhere... at all!]")

I have mentioned the resurrection of all at the end of this age quite a few times.
[biblically, "at the end [singular] of the age [singular]" which is DISTINCT FROM "this present age [singular]"... and the GWTj is not at the end of EITHER of THOSE, but at the END of "the age [singular] to come" i.e. the MK age... at the end of THAT]

But aside from that ^ point (which itself is helpful in understanding properly the "chronology" issues, and not having ppl inadvertently thinking that, say, Matt13:24,30,39,40,49-50 / Matt24:3 [and context in 2 chpts] is speaking of the GWTj time-slot, which it ISN'T)...

... Revelation 20 shows us (among other passages not IN Rev) that "saints" [even] who died in the SECOND HALF of the Trib are resurrected BEFORE the MK age (that is, ALL "saints" will have been resurrected BY / IN TIME FOR the MK age commencing)... but the text continues on telling of "but the REST / remnant of the DEAD lived not again UNTIL the 1000 yrs were CONCLUDED" (i.e. at the LATER GWTj time-slot... so NOT ALL (saved AND unsaved) are "resurrected" at the SAME time-slot!!; These ("the rest of the DEAD") are the "UNSAVED [DEAD... of all times]"... i.e. "resurrection OF JUDGMENT" at a distinct time-slot / 1000-yrs LATER)
So why are you now
speaking as if the first death is what it's all about, when the reality is, it is the second death we speak
of, when those who refuse to acknowledge God are not given more life, and pass into the second death?
I'm putting what I did because of what I'd written in a DIFFERENT thread on Feb21--perhaps you've not seen that post--my Post #2251 (pg 113, diff thread... bottom half of that post)... quoted IN PART, below:


[quoting from that post]

Then (further), "Hell / hades" will be later (at the GWTj time-slot) cast into the lake of fire, as well as those who will have come from there (i.e. the unsaved dead; Rev20:13,14,15); The beast and the false prophet will have been in the lake of fire for the thousand years already by that point (so far), and Satan will be loosed from his prison to be cast into the lake of fire at that point, where (as it says), "they [plural] shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever [/unto the ages [plural] of the ages [plural]" which underlined phrase, everywhere it is used (in every case, even in Revelation), ALWAYS MEANS "forever" (as we normally define the term), that is, forever without end.

All those of whom it is said "[and death] and hell/hades[/U] delivered up the dead which were in them" are all of the unsaved dead (i.e. those whose names were not found written in 'the Book OF LIFE') and these will be cast into the lake of fire also at that point (at the GWTj point in time; i.e. when Satan will be cast into the lake of fire). "Death" and "hell /hades" will also be cast into the lake of fire at that point...

IOW, this is when "death" itself ('the last enemy') will be "destroyed [G2673; 'to render idle, unemployed, inactivate, inoperative'... 'to cause to cease, put an end to, do away with, annul, abolish']" 1Cor15:26 (meaning, "the SECOND death" is NOT "death" which will have just been put out of business permanently at that point / destroyed [G2673]... "the SECOND death" is the lake of fire Rev20:14, 21:8). "Death" will have been put out of business at that point (no one suffering the lake of fire will ever employ "death"... the only thing available is "the SECOND death [i.e. 'the lake of fire']"--there is no escaping out of there by means of dying [/death]... as it will have been officially put out-of-business, at that point (at the GWTj time-slot).

[end quoting from that thread; more at LINK, further below that portion quoted above]

-- Post #2251 - https://christianchat.com/threads/a...r-anyone-except-the-devil.206431/post-5023354



____________

^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
"the SECOND death" (i.e. the lake of fire) is not defined as "death" which will have been PUT OUT OF BUSINESS at the GWTj time-slot, no one employing it ever again!

But "the lake of fire" (the SECOND death) is said to exist "unto the ages [plural] of the ages [plural]" (b/c of what it says in v.10 "and THEY SHALL BE TORMENTED unto the ages [plural] of the ages [plural]" which in ALL 21x this phrase is used, ALWAYS MEANS unendingly / forever / without end... They can no longer count on "DEATH" to get them OUT of it, as it will have been "cast into" ALSO and "annulled [/put out of business]" at that same GWTj point...)
 

HeIsHere

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Perhaps I'm recalling past threads, where some had suggested that OT usages of the word "destroy / destroying / destroyed" MEANS "annihilated" (as in "no longer EXISTS [anywhere... at all!]")

That is the doctrine ... to de-create what was created.

God needs a "Lake of Fire" to do this apparently, not sure why He didn't have a creation machine in Genesis.
 

oyster67

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But "the lake of fire" (the SECOND death) is said to exist "unto the ages [plural] of the ages [plural]" (b/c of what it says in v.10 "and THEY SHALL BE TORMENTED unto the ages [plural] of the ages [plural]" which in ALL 21x this phrase is used, ALWAYS MEANS unendingly / forever / without end... They can no longer count on "DEATH" to get them OUT of it, as it will have been "cast into" ALSO and "annulled [/put out of business]" at that same GWTj point...)
Amen. And this is not just a Book of Revelation thing either. Jesus spoke of it many times when on Earth.
Matthew 25:46
“And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.”

Mark 9:
45And if thy foot offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter halt into life, than having two feet to be cast into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched: 46Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched.

Even back in the OT...
Daniel 12:2
“And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.”

The Second Resurrection is the Resurrection unto Eternal Damnation. The Lake of Fire is there for a reason.
 

Webers.Home

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What exactly is God doing to people in the Lake of Fire according to you?

It appears to me, from the language and grammar of Rev 20:10-15, that the
lake of fire is yet future and for now the lost are detained in an area called
Hades (Luke 16:19-31, Rev 20:13) which is a furnace rather than a pool.
Although folks in Hades aren't soaked in liquid flame like they will be in the lake;
they're still pretty miserable.
_
 
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What exactly is God doing to people in the Lake of Fire according to you?

Is He ruining the person like a car smashing it to pieces?

Do you really think the spiritual world is the same as the material world?
Collins English Dictionary: destruction: being destroyed...demolition...ruin.

In what way is, say, a car relatively destroyed when an insurance assessor writes it off? Or a ruined building and the authorities say the shell must be razed to the ground? And a dead human body is cremated and the ashes thrown into the sea?

HiH: What exactly is God doing to people in the Lake of Fire according to you?



WB: I thought I’d made my position on this issue crystal clear and given that you take an opposite position I have to wonder why you need to ask that question…unless, of course, you haven’t actually bothered to read what I’ve been saying and you have the default to oppose anything after merely scratching the surface.



Secondly, I don’t actually claim that my view is ‘written in stone’ and I’m prepared to change my position if I’m presented with a compelling argument that drills down into the original meaning of the words Hell, Hades, Sheol, Gehenna, and also deals with Revelation which contains much in the way of symbolic answers.



To date no-one has come anywhere close to doing what I quite legitimately request.



So, I’ll state my position yet again. I am persuaded that unrepentant wilful sinners who reject the rightful Sovereignty of God and spurn His hand of friendship and reconciliation will after Judgment has been served and when thrown into the highly symbolic Lake of Fire be annihilated.

HiH: Is He ruining the person like a car smashing it to pieces?



WB:Based on my comment above, what do you think He will do?

HiH Do you really think the spiritual world is the same as the material world?



WB: And right there is your problem. You haven’t understood my position at all but presume you do know. And based on your incorrect premise it’s hardly surprising you draw a wrong conclusion.



Here’s a suggestion for you. Instead of presuming to know what you think I’m thinking, you would do yourself a great service IF you stopped reading into my words things that aren’t there.



In other words you – and you’re not the only one – are attacking straw men i.e. trying to tear down arguments that I haven’t made. By all means challenge what I do say. But firstly at least make the effort to understand my points.
 

awelight

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Collins English Dictionary: destruction: being destroyed...demolition...ruin.

In what way is, say, a car relatively destroyed when an insurance assessor writes it off? Or a ruined building and the authorities say the shell must be razed to the ground? And a dead human body is cremated and the ashes thrown into the sea?

HiH: What exactly is God doing to people in the Lake of Fire according to you?



WB: I thought I’d made my position on this issue crystal clear and given that you take an opposite position I have to wonder why you need to ask that question…unless, of course, you haven’t actually bothered to read what I’ve been saying and you have the default to oppose anything after merely scratching the surface.



Secondly, I don’t actually claim that my view is ‘written in stone’ and I’m prepared to change my position if I’m presented with a compelling argument that drills down into the original meaning of the words Hell, Hades, Sheol, Gehenna, and also deals with Revelation which contains much in the way of symbolic answers.



To date no-one has come anywhere close to doing what I quite legitimately request.



So, I’ll state my position yet again. I am persuaded that unrepentant wilful sinners who reject the rightful Sovereignty of God and spurn His hand of friendship and reconciliation will after Judgment has been served and when thrown into the highly symbolic Lake of Fire be annihilated.

HiH: Is He ruining the person like a car smashing it to pieces?



WB:Based on my comment above, what do you think He will do?

HiH Do you really think the spiritual world is the same as the material world?



WB: And right there is your problem. You haven’t understood my position at all but presume you do know. And based on your incorrect premise it’s hardly surprising you draw a wrong conclusion.



Here’s a suggestion for you. Instead of presuming to know what you think I’m thinking, you would do yourself a great service IF you stopped reading into my words things that aren’t there.



In other words you – and you’re not the only one – are attacking straw men i.e. trying to tear down arguments that I haven’t made. By all means challenge what I do say. But firstly at least make the effort to understand my points.
It still seems to me, since you are advocating a "one time" and "once for all" destruction or annihilation - contrary to what Scripture teaches.... Please give the verses you are basing this assumption on.

Unless you are a really good Koine Greek student - the English translations can get you into some trouble here. The Greek word often translated: "Destruction", for instance, does not always mean destruction in the total sense. Even in the English language it can be symbolic and not literal destruction. For example: "His bad financial decisions brought about his utter destruction." Obviously, this does not men the person was destroyed or even died but that his financial empire was brought to ruin.

There are two Greek words used most frequently in the NT Scriptures that are translated to mean some kind of destruction or ruin. They are: ἀπόλλυμι and it's derivation: ἀπώλεια. They are both compound words. They are translated in Scripture, into English, by many different words. Such as: Ruin, Loss, Death, Damnation, Destruction, Punishment and Waste. (KJV). The Compound nature of these two Greek words, means in principle: "To cast down" or "To cast away". The primary idea, is a separation.

Here are a few English translated verses and how these words were translated. [Marked in Red]

Mat 22:7 But the king was wroth; and he sent his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned their city.

Mat 26:8 But when the disciples saw it, they had indignation, saying, To what purpose is this waste?

Luke 17:27 They ate, they drank, they married, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all.

John 17:12 While I was with them, I kept them in thy name which thou hast given me: and I guarded them, and not one of them perished, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.

So as you can see, in just four verses, we have four different English words, for the same Greek Word.

So again I ask you... Which verses are you using to substantiate your view of a one time destruction?
 
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It still seems to me, since you are advocating a "one time" and "once for all" destruction or annihilation - contrary to what Scripture teaches.... Please give the verses you are basing this assumption on.

Unless you are a really good Koine Greek student - the English translations can get you into some trouble here. The Greek word often translated: "Destruction", for instance, does not always mean destruction in the total sense. Even in the English language it can be symbolic and not literal destruction. For example: "His bad financial decisions brought about his utter destruction." Obviously, this does not men the person was destroyed or even died but that his financial empire was brought to ruin.

There are two Greek words used most frequently in the NT Scriptures that are translated to mean some kind of destruction or ruin. They are: ἀπόλλυμι and it's derivation: ἀπώλεια. They are both compound words. They are translated in Scripture, into English, by many different words. Such as: Ruin, Loss, Death, Damnation, Destruction, Punishment and Waste. (KJV). The Compound nature of these two Greek words, means in principle: "To cast down" or "To cast away". The primary idea, is a separation.

Here are a few English translated verses and how these words were translated. [Marked in Red]

Mat 22:7 But the king was wroth; and he sent his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned their city.

Mat 26:8 But when the disciples saw it, they had indignation, saying, To what purpose is this waste?

Luke 17:27 They ate, they drank, they married, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all.

John 17:12 While I was with them, I kept them in thy name which thou hast given me: and I guarded them, and not one of them perished, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.

So as you can see, in just four verses, we have four different English words, for the same Greek Word.

So again I ask you... Which verses are you using to substantiate your view of a one time destruction?
WB: My position on this issue - unlike that of certain others who base their view on a 'blinkered' understanding of Hell, Sheol, Hades, and Gehenna and which you haven't addressed - is not restricted to just that aspect but is of a wider scope.

I share the views articulated in this article which I am yet again referencing and which no-one in this forum has even attempted to rebut on a point-by-point basis.

https://www.jeremyandchristine.com/articles/eternal.php
 

GRACE_ambassador

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I asked YOU to give an exposition for your belief in eternal torture and those words are explicit in that I meant YOU to use your very own words, albeit with links/references to support you, to see IF you actually know what you’re talking about.
+
certain others who base their view on a 'blinkered' understanding of Hell, Sheol, Hades, and Gehenna and which you haven't addressed - is not restricted to just that aspect but is of a wider scope.

I share the views articulated in this article which I am yet again referencing and which no-one in this forum has even attempted to rebut on a point-by-point basis.

jeremyandchristine.com/articles/eternal
So, it's ok to 'post your link' but not ok for me? Isn't that a double standard?:

Hell, Sheol, Hades, Paradise, and the grave (Part I)
Hell, Sheol, Hades, Paradise, and the grave (Part II)


GRACE And Peace...