So this has become the question in another thread. Did Christ die for only the elect or die He die for all. Here are the two views;
1. Limited atonement, sometimes called particular redemption, is based on the doctrine of election or predestination.
Since only the elect of God will be saved, the reasoning goes, Jesus must have died only for them. Otherwise, Jesus’ death “failed” those who are not elect. If Jesus died for everyone, then hell will be full of people for whom Jesus died—was His atonement insufficient? If Jesus died only for the elect, then His atonement perfectly accomplished its goal. Every person for whom Jesus died will be in heaven.
2. Unlimited atonement, on the other hand, says that Jesus died for everyone but that only those who respond in faith will reap the benefits of His sacrifice. In other words, Jesus’ death was sufficient for all, but only effectual for some (those who have faith). If Jesus did not die for everyone, the reasoning goes, then the offer of salvation is empty, because the non-elect cannot be saved.
I find this a very interesting question. I am digging deeper to fully explain what I believe and why. Does anyone else care to take a crack at it. Please use Scripture in your answer where possible.
1. Limited atonement, sometimes called particular redemption, is based on the doctrine of election or predestination.
Since only the elect of God will be saved, the reasoning goes, Jesus must have died only for them. Otherwise, Jesus’ death “failed” those who are not elect. If Jesus died for everyone, then hell will be full of people for whom Jesus died—was His atonement insufficient? If Jesus died only for the elect, then His atonement perfectly accomplished its goal. Every person for whom Jesus died will be in heaven.
2. Unlimited atonement, on the other hand, says that Jesus died for everyone but that only those who respond in faith will reap the benefits of His sacrifice. In other words, Jesus’ death was sufficient for all, but only effectual for some (those who have faith). If Jesus did not die for everyone, the reasoning goes, then the offer of salvation is empty, because the non-elect cannot be saved.
I find this a very interesting question. I am digging deeper to fully explain what I believe and why. Does anyone else care to take a crack at it. Please use Scripture in your answer where possible.
It's strongest support comes from John 10:
First, The Shepherd separates His own from those that are not His own - which speaks of Election.
John 10:4 When he hath put forth all his own, he is going before them, and the sheep follow him: for they know his voice.
John 10:5 And a stranger will they not follow, but will flee from him: for they know not the voice of strangers.
In this way, Jesus clarifies His People from the people of unbelieving Judaism and of the world in general.
Now the religionist of Jesus' day didn't get it and they still don't.
John 10:6 This parable spoke Jesus unto them: but they understood not what things they were which he spoke unto them.
Second, He confirms three times that He gives up His life for them:
-- John 10:11 I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep.
-- John 10:14 I am the good shepherd; and I know mine own, and mine own know me,
John 10:15 even as the Father knows me, and I know the Father; and I lay down my life for the sheep.
-- John_10:17 Therefore doth the Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I may take it again.
To make sure there is no doubt about what He is talking about - He goes onto say later:
John 10:25 Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believe not: the works that I do in my Father's name, these bear witness of me.
John 10:26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep.
John 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
John 10:28 and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, and no one shall snatch them out of my hand.
John 10:29 My Father, which hath given them unto me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand.
At this point we see the typical reaction by religionist to this Doctrine when defended or proclaimed. In the above verses, Jesus was speaking of Salvation originating with the Father and that He was equal to the Father.
John 10:31 The Jews took up stones again to stone him.
Additionally, it is spoken of in Romans chapter 5, which differentiates between those in Adam and those in Christ but that detailed discussion will have to wait for another time.
- 1
- Show all