Do you believe everything the Bible says?
- Thread starter Runningman
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I was praying something along the lines of this passage. Kinda talking about how divided the church is and so forth. What I believe was given to me was something along the lines of “bring me glory” and doctrine doesn’t come before God’s glory. At the end of the day it helps to remember the things that matter the most. Seek the kingdom of heaven and His righteousness.
Which is, in a word, foolish. Better to translate directly from the original languages.We take the KJV and translate it to other languages.
You keep using this tired argument, and you still do not embrace the fact what God can do doesn't hold any evidentiary power. What God has done is what matters. God did not inspire the KJV translation, and your argument is fallacious.
The english language, has words that have several different meanings, such as saved, world, all men, every man, etc. being careful in putting them in the right context.
I assume you are referring to me. Do you think that you can read my mind, in determining who I rely upon to glean the truths in the scriptures?
I have never read Calvin's writings, or any others writings, nor do I listen to TV preachers. The only preachers that I listen to are the ones that preach in the church that I attend, as a deceon, and I have been known to call to their attention of misinterpreted scriptures.
My only source of the study of the scriptures are the scriptures proving themselves in harmony, with the revelation of the Holy Spirit.
“I have eagerly desired
ἐπεθύμησα (epethymēsa)
Verb - Aorist Indicative Active - 1st Person Singular
Strong's Greek 1937: To long for, covet, lust after, set the heart upon. From epi and thumos; to set the heart upon, i.e. Long for.
Curious to know which Verse or Verses fall into your statement concerning these 4 Books?
2: "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth." This does not mean This does not mean to "devote time and attention to acquiring knowledge on (an academic subject), especially by means of books." Modern translations have this verse as "Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a worker who does not need to be ashamed and who correctly handles the word of truth." (NIV); "Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved by him, a worker who has no need to be ashamed, rightly explaining the word of truth." NRSVue; "Make every effort to present yourself before God as a proven worker who does not need to be ashamed, teaching the message of truth accurately." NET Of course, there is no need to mention "unicorns" LOL
3: There is no basis for saying this. It is simply your opinion. I and many, many others disagree. I challenge you to prove that the antiquated KJV "contains the pure, correct words for English" (and don't you mean for the original languages?).
4: Saying "The current version of English is so watered down and not correct, slang at best" is meaningless. a) Which version is "the current version"? There are many translations. b) How are any modern translations "watered down and not correct"? c) "Slang at best"? Where do you find slang in modern translations? Your claim is silly. d) What are, in your opinion, "the correct words"?
Are you a scholar of ancient languages? Have you studied ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek? Have you served on translation committees? Do you have access to the earliest and best source documents? => I doubt it!!! <=
So please give a valid reason why you think that a 412-year-old version of the Bible, based on earlier translations and a limited set of source documents, authorized by a secular king to justify his rule and codify his personal brand of Protestantism, which has been modified many times over the centuries, is the word of God.
Of course words have different meaning in context. What are you trying to say?
We take the KJV and translate it to other languages.
Between the first and 16th century, God was perfectly preserving his words. God never said that he would preserve his words in every language, only that his words would be preserved.
What are you talking about? Can you give an example of the KJV being translated to other languages?
What is your evidence that "between the first and 16th century, God was perfectly preserving his words"? Are you claiming that God didn't preserve His words in the Old Testament? And did God give up preserving His words in 1599, 12 years before the KJV was created?
1. The new versions do not want you to study the word of truth, nor rightly divide it.
2. No errors found, only alleged errors
3. Example: thee, thou, you, and ye are the correct forms of English.
If you have real interest, just google "Biblical contradictions". There are lists. Some things are obviously "interpretation issues", but other things are obvious contradictions of fact. Are the contradictions of any importance? nah!! But they do establish that the KJV IS NOT "Perfect" verbally.
Versions do not have motivations; that's a reification fallacy.
Your inability to accept the presence of errors does not negate their existence.
No, they are forms that are no longer in common usage. They may be precise, but they are no more correct.
Just because you received this information 3rd hand doesn't make my answer different.
4 languages...not 3. And there's a REASON why this is important.
And if you don't understand....start over and try exegesis instead of eisogesis.