Does God desire the salvation of all mankind?

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Locoponydirtman said:
No you are not. You have provided zero textual cause for imposing abnormal meaning to the text.
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I know people which I am quite certain have a viewpoint that reads those words within the context of the chapter. So as stated here is their likely interpretation and for myself these matters are peripheral. God is sovereign and in control and the one to judge.
persistent said:
Some people claim that the nation established in 1948, Israel is not the 'Israel' referred to in prophecy and for some would also add a twist to 'interpreting' Isaiah's prophecies
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persistent said:
I know people which I am quite certain have a viewpoint that reads those words within the context of the chapter. So as stated here is their likely interpretation and for myself these matters are peripheral. God is sovereign and in control and the one to judge.
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When scripture is used to interpret scripture (as is proper). The textual cues are paramount. With in the context of 1 John 2, there is no textual or contextual reason to impose the additional words "the elect".
In dealing with Isaiah there is contextual reason to interpret reject the idea that the passage refers to the nation state that was established in 1948. Paul states that not all of Israel is Israel. And further defines what He means by going on to talk about the faithful.
 
Locoponydirtman said:
In dealing with Isaiah there is contextual reason to interpret reject the idea that the passage refers to the nation state that was established in 1948. Paul states that not all of Israel is Israel. And further defines what He means by going on to talk about the faithful.
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"In dealing with Isaiah there is contextual reason to interpret reject the idea that the passage refers to the nation state that was established in 1948"

Your quote here, if not referring to Israeli state of 1948, then 'who', 'what', 'when', and 'where' are the peoples referred to as Israel in the passage? The passages refer to Israel.

"Paul states that not all of Israel is Israel. And further defines what He means by going on to talk about the faithful"

Is this the same Israel that is recorded at Isaiah 45? Some people claim Paul is the Apostle to the Gentiles and this further confounds the matter of the 4 w's as above. It appears to me that you may be referring to what is known to some as 'Spiritual' Israel. If that is the case would you see Pauls' statements of "Israel" as distinct from the "Israel" of Isaiah 45?
 
persistent said:
Your quote here, if not referring to Israeli state of 1948, then 'who', 'what', 'when', and 'where' are the peoples referred to as Israel in the passage? The passages refer to Israel.
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Who does Paul say Israel is? In Romans, (i think chapter 9)
 
Locoponydirtman said:
Show contextual evidence. If you cant do that then we have no conversation.
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You havent paid any attention to the things I have already taken time to explain. Nevertheless as stated, it takes Gods powerful grace to convince a person of truth, not mere letter context.
 
brightfame52 said:
You havent paid any attention to the things I have already taken time to explain. Nevertheless as stated, it takes Gods powerful grace to convince a person of truth, not mere letter context.
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So the text of scripture is insufficient?
 
Its my personal standard, that the text of scripture is the rule. So that those adding to scripture or taking away from scripture are wrong.
 
Locoponydirtman said:
Its my personal standard, that the text of scripture is the rule. So that those adding to scripture or taking away from scripture are wrong.
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The text of scripture is fine if one is regenerated and have the Spirit of God in them to teach them the spiritual truths of those texts of scripture. Paul wrote of that 1 Cor 2:13-14

13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.

14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

So do you deny the supernatural work of the Spirit to give spiritual comprehension of the scripture ? Or is merely the natural man and his natural contextual intellect sufficient ?
 
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Magenta said:
Quite the eisegesis...
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According to Greek translation, salvation=deliverance, saved=delivered, and save=deliver

If you apply all of the salvation scriptures to eternal salvation, they will falsely teach that eternal salvation is accomplished by a person's good works.

There is a one time eternal deliverance, and there are many deliverances that the born again child of God receives as he sojourns here in this world.
 
ForestGreenCook said:
According to Greek translation, salvation=deliverance, saved=delivered, and save=deliver

If you apply all of the salvation scriptures to eternal salvation, they will falsely teach that eternal salvation is accomplished by a person's good works.

There is a one time eternal deliverance, and there are many deliverances that the born again child of God receives as he sojourns here in this world.
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Jesus promises to show Himself to those who love Him. You are all over the place while neglecting that salient fact.
 
Magenta said:
Jesus promises to show Himself to those who love Him. You are all over the place while neglecting that salient fact.
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I'm sorry, but you will have to give me further explanation as being "all over the place" before I can follow your meaning. Are you rejecting the Greek interpretation of the salvation scriptures?
 
ForestGreenCook said:
I'm sorry, but you will have to give me further explanation as being "all over the place" before I can follow your meaning. Are you rejecting the Greek interpretation of the salvation scriptures?
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Rather funny (peculiar) considering that you reject that faith is a requirement of salvation.
 
brightfame52 said:
The text of scripture is fine if one is regenerated and have the Spirit of God in them to teach them the spiritual truths of those texts of scripture. Paul wrote of that 1 Cor 2:13-14

13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.

14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

So do you deny the supernatural work of the Spirit to give spiritual comprehension of the scripture ? Or is merely the natural man and his natural contextual intellect sufficient ?
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Paul is not teaching that super natural interpretation supercedes the text of scripture.
 
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