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Does God desire the salvation of all mankind?
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When scripture is used to interpret scripture (as is proper). The textual cues are paramount. With in the context of 1 John 2, there is no textual or contextual reason to impose the additional words "the elect".
In dealing with Isaiah there is contextual reason to interpret reject the idea that the passage refers to the nation state that was established in 1948. Paul states that not all of Israel is Israel. And further defines what He means by going on to talk about the faithful.
In dealing with Isaiah there is contextual reason to interpret reject the idea that the passage refers to the nation state that was established in 1948. Paul states that not all of Israel is Israel. And further defines what He means by going on to talk about the faithful.
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"In dealing with Isaiah there is contextual reason to interpret reject the idea that the passage refers to the nation state that was established in 1948"
Your quote here, if not referring to Israeli state of 1948, then 'who', 'what', 'when', and 'where' are the peoples referred to as Israel in the passage? The passages refer to Israel.
"Paul states that not all of Israel is Israel. And further defines what He means by going on to talk about the faithful"
Is this the same Israel that is recorded at Isaiah 45? Some people claim Paul is the Apostle to the Gentiles and this further confounds the matter of the 4 w's as above. It appears to me that you may be referring to what is known to some as 'Spiritual' Israel. If that is the case would you see Pauls' statements of "Israel" as distinct from the "Israel" of Isaiah 45?
Your quote here, if not referring to Israeli state of 1948, then 'who', 'what', 'when', and 'where' are the peoples referred to as Israel in the passage? The passages refer to Israel.
"Paul states that not all of Israel is Israel. And further defines what He means by going on to talk about the faithful"
Is this the same Israel that is recorded at Isaiah 45? Some people claim Paul is the Apostle to the Gentiles and this further confounds the matter of the 4 w's as above. It appears to me that you may be referring to what is known to some as 'Spiritual' Israel. If that is the case would you see Pauls' statements of "Israel" as distinct from the "Israel" of Isaiah 45?
The text of scripture is fine if one is regenerated and have the Spirit of God in them to teach them the spiritual truths of those texts of scripture. Paul wrote of that 1 Cor 2:13-14
13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
So do you deny the supernatural work of the Spirit to give spiritual comprehension of the scripture ? Or is merely the natural man and his natural contextual intellect sufficient ?
13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
So do you deny the supernatural work of the Spirit to give spiritual comprehension of the scripture ? Or is merely the natural man and his natural contextual intellect sufficient ?
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According to Greek translation, salvation=deliverance, saved=delivered, and save=deliver
If you apply all of the salvation scriptures to eternal salvation, they will falsely teach that eternal salvation is accomplished by a person's good works.
There is a one time eternal deliverance, and there are many deliverances that the born again child of God receives as he sojourns here in this world.
