Nephelim
- Thread starter JonathanBentley
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What does 'wife' mean though? In a time/place of depravity?
Mohammed's 'wife' Safiyah -
According to the Hadith, Safiyah did not have a choice in this marriage; she was war booty for Mohammad,
not an uncommon practice at the time. She and her husband were captured after Mohammad's conquest of Khaybar.
He tortured & murdered her husband Kinana and murdered her father after taking them as prisoners of war.
The Hadith narrations agree that Mohammad chose her due to her exceeding beauty, as had been his custom where
the Muslims took slave women as booty, such as the conquest of the Banu Qurayzah.
Similarly the Genesis 6 account could have been part of an act of war against mankind.
That isn't to say that the women (or some of them) didn't cooperate willingly. Just that we can't assume they did
based on our understanding of how marriage should be.
When Scripture said, "we will be like the angels which neither marry nor are given in marriage," it uses the two phrases, 'to marry' and 'to be given in marriage' which covers both the male and female perspectives of marriage so as a man takes a wife.
When Paul stood before the Sanhedrin, Acts 23 accounts the quarreling among the Sadducees and the Pharisees when he brought up the resurrection, knowing "the Sadducees say that there is neither a resurrection, nor angels, nor spirits, but the Pharisees acknowledge them all (Acts 23:8)," and found myself wishing I had a more thorough explanation of the Sadducee view of angels and spirits to help determine the extent of error or accuracy. I mean, should we always infer that the Pharisees are completely right when it comes to biblical interpretation?
The fact of the matter is simple. If the KJV/Textus Receptus was translated properly it would be word for word to the Hebrew Torah.
If it is not word for word to the Hebrew Torah it is INCORRECT.
The Hebrew Torah existed for 3,500 years before the Textus Receptus KJV was ever written. If it reads differently and gives a different meaning to Genesis Chapter 6 it's proof Of mistranslation.
Those taking the view point of the KJV over the Hebrew Torah are being deceived.
Attachments
Let me say it this way:
The Hebrew Torah Genesis Chapter 6 Version was given to Moses personally by God Himself.
The Textus Receptus KJV was given to us by Erasmus and the Roman Catholic Church.
Clearly only ONE VERSION is Inspired by God!
The Hebrew Torah Genesis Chapter 6 Version was given to Moses personally by God Himself.
The Textus Receptus KJV was given to us by Erasmus and the Roman Catholic Church.
Clearly only ONE VERSION is Inspired by God!
Simple: it means a permanent relationship, not a "one night stand".
It says they took "wives" . If they had merely fornicated, raped or "ravished" women, Genesis 6 would have made that distinction.
Hebrew cannot be translated “word for word” into English. The structures are completely different. Have a look at an interlinear version to get a sense of the challenges.
May 11th 1986, around 12pm,, I called on Jesus is faith after hearing a message from Psalm 23, King James Bible. You can wonder which translation/version is true/accurate if you want, but that one worked well enough for me.
I don’t doubt your experience at all, but it isn’t evidence for the accuracy of the KJV.
And yet, a translation can be the inspired words of God. Joseph spoke in Egyptian, yet his words were recorded as part of the Hebrew text in the "originals". I guess God is not bound by language.
Maybe not. Neither can you purport evidence or proof for any of the others.I don’t doubt your experience at all, but it isn’t evidence for the accuracy of the KJV.
Suit yourself.
Genesis 6 declares that humans had become so consistently evil that God destroyed them.
It doesn't sound like they had a righteous understanding of a marital relationship.
Forced marriages would be more likely than not in a world like that. It happens even in today's world.