John 3:16
16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
17For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
John 3:16, identifies God’s actions using the past tense. In order to be consistent with what you said, does it mean God didn’t love the world before Jesus was resurrected? Because if Jesus wasn’t God’s only begotten Son until after resurrection then God wouldn’t have loved the world to have sent His only begotten Son into the world.
Can you prove God didn’t love the world prior to the resurrection and incarnation of Jesus?
There were plenty of types, shadows/foreshadowings, and outright prophecies concerning Christ’s resurrection from the dead prior to his actual resurrection from the dead, and those who believed in the same had their faith imputed unto them for righteousness.
For example, let’s take a quick look at Abram/Abraham.
Everyone is familiar with the following:
Genesis chapter 15
[1] After these things the word of the LORD came unto Abram in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: I am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward.
[2] And Abram said, Lord GOD, what wilt thou give me, seeing I go childless, and the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus?
[3] And Abram said, Behold, to me thou hast given no seed: and, lo, one born in my house is mine heir.
[4] And, behold, the word of the LORD came unto him, saying, This shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir.
[5] And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him, So shall thy seed be.
[6]
And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.
When was this “he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness” part actually fulfilled?
Well, James answers that question for us.
We read:
James chapter 2
[21]
Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
[22] Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
[23]
And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
According to James, Genesis 15:6 wasn’t “fulfilled” until the time came that Abraham “had offered Isaac his son upon the altar”.
Please allow me to explain…
God had told Abraham that “in Isaac shall thy seed be called” (Gen. 21:12, Rom. 9:7, Heb. 11:18) or that Christ, who is “the seed of Abraham”, would come through the lineage or descendancy of Isaac.
Shortly thereafter, God told Abraham to sacrifice Isaac on the altar.
Well, how in the world could Christ come through Isaac’s lineage or descendancy if Abraham killed Isaac?
Of course, the correct answer is only if God raised Isaac from the dead in order to fulfill his promise, and this is precisely what Abraham believed would happen.
In relation to the same, we read:
Hebrews chapter 11
[17]
By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
[18]
Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called:
[19]
Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.
Why is Isaac referred to here as Abraham’s “only begotten son”?
I mean, Abraham certainly had other sons, didn’t he?
Yes, as a matter of fact, he did.
He not only fathered Ishmael, but he also fathered other sons after Sarah was dead:
Genesis chapter 25
[1] Then again Abraham took a wife, and her name was Keturah.
[2] And she bare him Zimran, and Jokshan, and Medan, and Midian, and Ishbak, and Shuah.
[3] And Jokshan begat Sheba, and Dedan. And the sons of Dedan were Asshurim, and Letushim, and Leummim.
[4] And the sons of Midian; Ephah, and Epher, and Hanoch, and Abida, and Eldaah. All these were the children of Keturah.
Seeing how Abraham had other sons besides Isaac, why is Isaac called Abraham’s “only begotten son”?
Well, the answer is in the text itself.
Again, we read:
Hebrews chapter 11
[17] By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and
he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
[18] Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called:
[19]
Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.
Isaac is called Abraham’s “only begotten son” because Abraham “accounted that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure”.
Again, this is how Abraham “believed” that the LORD would fulfill his promise of “in Isaac shall thy seed be called” after commanding Abraham to sacrifice or to kill Isaac.
Anyhow, my point is that there were many types, shadows/foreshadowings, and outright prophecies concerning Christ’s resurrection from the dead before the actual “day” came in which he was “begotten”, and those who exercised their faith in the same had it imputed unto them for righteousness…EVEN AS WE DO TODAY.
With such being the case, God loved the world before the actual “day” in which Christ was “begotten”, but his love is directly linked to that “day”.
Again, if Christ isn’t risen from the dead, then our faith in vain, and we are yet in our sins.
“And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.” (I Cor. 15:17)
As far as John 3:16 is concerned, Jesus was clearly speaking to Nicodemus about his/our need to be “born again”. No one, and I mean NO ONE, can be born again apart from Christ’s resurrection from the dead, or apart from exercising faith in “God’s only begotten Son”, or apart from exercising faith in Jesus who is “the first begotten of the dead”.
“And from
Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and
the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,” (Rev. 1:5)
