It fits post trib better--without having to divide references to Christ's coming arbitrarily into two events.
It's all based on explanations to try to make this whole scenario fit with passages of scripture. But the scripture doesn't teach the scenario, so where is it's authority?
It's a 'goodness of fit' approach, not something the Bible actually teaches.
I disagree, as you know, if you've read some of my earlier posts in this thread, esp. where I say that Paul becomes even more explicit with its timing, in relation to the time-period known as "the DOTL" (the Subject of the false claim in v.2--distinct from Paul's v.1 Subject regarding "our Rapture" which will be "in the air," by contrast... and yes repeats this sequence 3x in this text).
It is actually theologies (with their resulting eschatological viewpoints) based on covenant theology which makes assumptions, upon which all the rest of their non-scriptural notions are based (flimsily) and derived from, and even requires them to change "what the Scriptures say" to comport with their theology (instead of the other way around, lol).
I'll try to give you a little example of this:
... their saying that David's throne has now been relocated up to Heaven (ever since Jesus' resurrection / ascension), and they try to say that Acts 3 (esp. vv.11 thru chpt end) expresses this very idea.
But that is NOT the idea being conveyed in Acts 3, at all.
The reason/reasons they [incorrectly] THINK it is conveying that, is because:
--they see the word "RAISE" used in that chpt a few times, and surmise that they are each referencing THE SAME THING: His having been "RAISED from the dead";
but not every use of that word in this chapter speaks of that (and here is their first mis-step!)... Verse 15 speaks of that, yes, but the other two mentions of the word "raise" speak of His earthly ministry, His having been raised up to a position of prominence (as "Prophet" [...like unto Moses]) BEFORE His death on the Cross; Strike one on the "amill-teachings" incorrect explanation of this passage, all because they START with searching for the WORD "RAISE" and then imposing their covenant theology IDEA back into it (the idea that most all of OT prophecy was fulfilled in Jesus' FIRST coming / at the Cross), thereby continuing on to misread the next part of this chpt (see next entry)...
--they thus incorrectly conclude that "prophets spoke OF THESE DAYS" means, the idea that David's throne is [supposedly] NOW "relocated" up to Heaven; but "spoke OF THESE DAYS" doesn't refer to His "coming in glory / as King," but refers rather to His "Suffering SERVANT" aspect (that they had not been anticipating, not understanding both aspects were ABOUT HIM / JESUS); see 1Sam8:7 for example (compared with both what Jesus Himself said regarding the rulers'/religious leaders' view of His first coming ministry Luke 19:14, and what Joseph's FIRST dream shows us in "TYPE", i.e. rejection by His own brothers, Gen37:8--Same basic sentence used in all three passages, referring to the "rejection" aspect (i.e. His "Suffering SERVANT" aspect, that being His FIRST advent); The people Peter is speaking to in this context had OVERLOOKED / BYPASSED His "Suffering Servant" aspect, thereby fulfilling (THEMSELVES) those very prophecies;
--consequently, due to their "theology" being off and thus basing their "interpretations" ON said theology, they then have to completely mis-read [/change] what it is that v.21 PLAINLY SAYS, which is, "
21 whom indeed it behooves heaven to receive UNTIL
the time
S of restoration
of all things of which God spoke by the mouth of His holy prophets
from the age." (Again, what did they speak of? Much more than merely His feet touch the ground--while "obliterating" the planet, according to, say, "Amill-teachings" [stemming from that "theology" mentioned above... as an example).
See, they look at (zero in on) the
THREE MENTIONS of the word "RAISE," in Acts 3, make ASSUMPTIONS about the word and what SINGULAR THING they
think it means here in each of those 3 verses (so that they can back up their root "theology"--that pretty much all prophecies were fulfilled in Christ's FIRST advent--that's why they think "Israel" turned into "the Church" now, etc...), but without reading the entire passage for what it actually conveys, with COMPREHENSION. It is NOT making the point that David's throne has now been RELOCATED to Heaven, since His resurrection.
That is to mis-read this passage, and to not DISTINGUISH the TWO distinct "RAISE" issues being spoken of here in Acts 3.
This is just one puny example, mind you.
[I'm not saying that I'm "deducing" and "surmising"... Though I've offered some "supporting" texts, those others have not been what I consider the PRIMARY text, regarding the
"timing" of our Rapture
in relation to that time-period known as "the DOTL" which commences with the INITIAL "birth pang" 1Th5:1-3 [Matt24:4 / Mk13:5, i.e. Seal #1] at the START of the 7-yr period not commencing at its END; Paul is explicit in 2Th2 regarding this... but mis-defining words and phrases, and poor grammatical methods will have one taking mis-steps right out of the gate, bringing one to the exact opposite conclusion from what Paul is actually conveying in this text (the repeated-3x-SEQUENCE in this passage)]
