Circular reasoning with no evidence at hand.
And we know John did not see an electric table lamp right? What did it mean in his day? An oil based lamp.
This would qualify as guesswork called "intrinsic probability".
Evidence for what? No one in Christian circles or Theological academia is arguing for wax candles or suggesting that John saw wax candles.
Even KJVO people say he saw oil based lampstand but they say it does not change the meaning to use Candlestick. I would agree if they define candlestick as an oil based Jewish menorah.
Anyone who replaces the oil based menorah with a wax candle looses the connection to Zech 4 which would be a huge mistake in illumination of the symbolism behind the vision here.
If you want to do that because KJV used candlestick and if you want to imagine wax candlesticks and loose the connection to Zech 4 go ahead, but to me that is like idolatry of the KJV scholars gone to seed. Seems like a sin to me.
This would qualify as guesswork called "intrinsic probability".
Biblical Greek and Hebrew are archaic.I didn't say Biblical Greek & Hebrew were archaic. Though Koine Greek is most certainly archaic to a modern Greek speaker.
That is not what I was getting at. You made a sarcastic comment. (below)
The KJV wasn't archaic 400 years ago. It is archaic now.
Of course the original languages were preserved in the manuscripts we still have.
The KJV is not an original language or manuscript, it's a translation from one language to another.
If you want to read it & use it, that is not a problem. Most people don't need it now.
The KJV is not needed to make a translation from Hebrew & Greek manuscripts to English, Spanish or any other language.
you can be sure every scripture that deals with Christ's deity in the RV is extremely weak.
I guarantee you the growth in doctrines denying Christ's deity have been fed by modern translations.
Biblical Greek and Hebrew are archaic.
How do you not understand this???
Then why are you still making the argument that the KJV is not a good version because it has old language??That makes no sense. I do understand.
How do you not understand it?
Hebrew & Greek are not English.
Hebrew & Greek are not English.
There is no need for you to slander a brother in Christ.His goal is to destroy all versions according to his superior knowledge using the "Greek game."
That's a thing with me too. I am familiar with KJV phrases for many verses that I can't remember the references of. KJV is what is in my head, blood, and heart.
John 21
15So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs. 16He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep. 17He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee. Jesus saith unto him, Feed my sheep.
I'm not very familiar with other translations. What do the other translations reveal about John 21:15-17 that KJV does not? (Question is for anyone.)
There are two words in Greek in this passage, both of which are simply translated "LOVE".
The First two times Jesus asks Peter, do you "AGAPE" (a pure, willful, sacrificial love that intentionally desires another’s highest good) me??
Peter answers both times: "I Phileo ( a fondness toward you) you. Which is tantamount to Peter saying "not really" to Jesus' question.
The third time, Jesus asks "Phileo"? And Peter is broken, and says "you know my heart, I Phileo you" ( it's the best I can do).
Remember that Peter HAD (when things were good) sworn dying allegiance to Jesus, and when this was tested, he folded like a house of cards. Peter's answer to jesus indicated that he had LEARNED something about his proclaimed "boundless dedication", and was being honest about it - now.
But Jesus command to him on all three occasions, as an apparent remedy for Peter's lack of "Agape" - i.e. "Feed my sheep" - MINISTER to the people. Jesus implied that in doing so, AGAPE will develop. Reading Peter's later writings, apparently it did.
That's what the original Greek text says. Seems like many of the other translations (ASV NIV, WEB, etc.) follow the KJV down the same path and lose the significance of the language.
Unfortunately, I'm not a very good "GOD-SPELLERES".![]()