Perfect in the bible's context is mostly referring to completion and maturity, rather than sinlessness or perfection in terms of unblemished.
Okay, I think a lot of us recognize that. I use KJV English from time to time.
The understanding isn't perfect understanding on the part of the believer.. but access to the perfect Word of God.. complete and mature.
The knowledge being perfect.. complete.. that is in the scripture.. .. so we have access to perfect knowledge.. and the believer can be complete and mature in applying God's Word to their lives.
So basically, you can just take one verse, use it as a spring board to teach your theory, and ignore the context? Paul's commentary on the coming of the perfect had to do with his own personal maturity-- his being like a child compared to adulthood. Before the perfect came he was like a child.
If perfection here has to do with having access to the canon of scripture, then Paul was like a little child in his understanding because he didn't have the canon of scripture, but you are like an adult. This interpretation still puts you in a superior position to that of the apostles.... unless of course you just disregard the whole part about Paul being like a child and sweep it under the rug, which seems like it might be your approach.
Hmm. If that is the case, why did you pick a gloss from the Strong's concordance that runs contrary to your own interpretation and has to do with an individual's maturity?G5046
τέλειος
teleios
tel'-i-os
From G5056; complete (in various applications of labor, growth, mental and moral character, etc.); neuter (as noun, with G3588) completeness: - of full age, man, perfect.
The 'child' thing.. is of having partial revelation.. not as in inferiority of knowledge.
Is there any reason to go with your interpretation except that you say so? Btw, are you dispensational in your eschatology? The two witnesses prophesy in the book of Revelation. Would you interpret that to be set before or after the first century?
Another problem with your interpretation is that it is rather alien to the themes of the epistle. Where in the New Testament do we actually get a verse that mentions a completed New Testament canon of scripture. If you were preaching your theory to an audience that heard the importance of the New testament canon of scripture week after week, maybe your interpretation would appeal to them if it fit their preconceived notions.
But what of the actual themes running through this book? Take a look at what he writes here compared to the next two chapters.
I Corinthians 15 I Corinthians 14
tongues, prophecy ---------------> tongues prophecy
coming of the perfect ---------------> the state of the believer in the resurrection, Christ's return,
Christ delivering up the kingdom to God at the end (telos)
The idea that the 'perfect' Paul is referring to in chapter 13 has to do with the eschatological 'end' makes a lot more sense than pulling the idea that he is referring to a completed canon out of thin air with no support from the context.
Also-- seeing in a glass dimly.. but then face to face..
What does the bible refer to itself as?
(James 1:23) For if any be a hearer of the word, and not a doer, he is like unto a man beholding his natural face in a glass:
(James 1:24) For he beholdeth himself, and goeth his way, and straightway forgetteth what manner of man he was.
(James 1:25) But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed.
There are commentators who read the face to face comment and recall the LORD speaking with Moses in Exodus 33:11.
But the verse you quoted makes a very strong argument against your position. James wrote his epistle before the New Testament canon was written. Apparently the law of liberty does not need to be written down to be perfect, since James wrote of the perfect law of liberty.
The law of liberty may be perfect, but the man in this passage is not. Paul's commentary on the coming of the perfect had to do with his own perfection/completion when it came to knowledge, etc.
Lastly--- 1 Corinthians 13 passage does not stand alone in explaining cessation of the sign gifts. This passage on it's own doesn't give the full picture. Christians from the continuation and cessation side can both give convincing arguments just based on this passage. There are other parts of the bible.. and key historical points that support cessationism.
I have spent a great deal of time on this topic due to moderation duties and a variety of other things, and I haven't seen a solid case for cessationism. It always relies on loose human reasoning and strange assumptions. For example, some cessationist seem to reverse the wording of a verse in II Timothy 3 in their minds, as if the passage were saying scripture is all that is given for the man of God is fully equipped, or something along those lines. This passage in I Corinthians is the closest I've seen for a prooftext.
Btw, John Calvin's commentary on the passage was that it was stupid to say that the perfect had already come before the resurrection or death.
peace[/QUOTE]

