Phoneman-777 said: What does Paul mean by "not the hearers of the law but the doers of the law shall be justified in His sight" and what does John mean by "make not mistake, he that does righteousness IS righteous"?
Guys, Paul was teaching that those who obey the entire law of Moses would be justified. However, Paul also wrote this, in the same epistle:
Rom 3:9,10
9 What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin.
10 As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one;
20 Therefore no one will be declared righteous in God’s sight by the works of the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of our sin.
23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
So, Paul was teaching that no one can earn salvation. All are sinners.
Guys, Paul was teaching that those who obey the entire law of Moses would be justified. However, Paul also wrote this, in the same epistle:
Rom 3:9,10
9 What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin.
10 As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one;
20 Therefore no one will be declared righteous in God’s sight by the works of the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of our sin.
23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
So, Paul was teaching that no one can earn salvation. All are sinners.
I was just pointing out that the word, 'law', means the entire law not just the ten commandments.
I hold to the fact, that we are saved by grace through faith... (Ephesians 2:8)