FreeGrace2 said:
No, I didn't "brush lightly over the verses". I pointed out that John's baptism is totally DIFFERENT than church age baptism.
You do not understand 1 Peter 3:21 at all.
You didn't even address my point that John's baptism is different than NT baptism. Or 1 Pet 3:21
No, I didn't "brush lightly over the verses". I pointed out that John's baptism is totally DIFFERENT than church age baptism.
You do not understand 1 Peter 3:21 at all.
I have been focusing on the very foundations... The first mentions... The way God himself initially set it up.
When people are willing to ignore (re-write, replace, redefine) the first statements (unjust in that which is least) they are also willing to ignore the meaning of the latter statements.(unjust in that which is much)
The bible states the purpose of baptism right at the beginning. You might not like it, but you have no right redefining or reinterpreting what it says.
It says John was preaching and baptizing the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. People who were willing to submit to that were granted their sins to be washed away (because of their obedience to the word and faith in God's message through those He sends).
If that changed later, we could look at what changes are made, and when... But if you don't admit what is clearly stated at the beginning, why should you expect to be trusted at what is built on that basic foundation?
In my estimation, you are refusing the clear statements about John's baptism because you have allowed your perceptions about later events to inform the earlier events. But God manifest them in the world AND in the word in the other order.
Love in Jesus,
Kelby
When people are willing to ignore (re-write, replace, redefine) the first statements (unjust in that which is least) they are also willing to ignore the meaning of the latter statements.(unjust in that which is much)
The bible states the purpose of baptism right at the beginning. You might not like it, but you have no right redefining or reinterpreting what it says.
It says John was preaching and baptizing the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. People who were willing to submit to that were granted their sins to be washed away (because of their obedience to the word and faith in God's message through those He sends).
If that changed later, we could look at what changes are made, and when... But if you don't admit what is clearly stated at the beginning, why should you expect to be trusted at what is built on that basic foundation?
In my estimation, you are refusing the clear statements about John's baptism because you have allowed your perceptions about later events to inform the earlier events. But God manifest them in the world AND in the word in the other order.
Love in Jesus,
Kelby