Is the law of Moses set aside?

[Jocund]

I conclude you mean under the NC and not the OC...your question.
For sanctification no (Jewish..yes). Cleanliness...yes.
(I would need to study...but, I don't remember it being required under the OC...not sure...just A Jewish custom..perhaps???)

Physical circumcision is an explicit requirement in the OT covenant but not the NT covenant.

I propose that our understanding should be that law-requirements can be fulfilled through equivalency and that this principle is evident even in the OT by itself.

A servant's lost eye can be repaid by granting him freedom, manslaughter can be repaid by monetary compensation. And following from that, specific OT ordinances can be fulfilled by equivalencies described in the NT. Do you agree or disagree with this?

Cleanliness...yes

Is it your position that pork and shellfish should not be consumed?

Supposing for a moment your answer is yes. If eating crayfish is sinful, would you deny a starving child crayfish?

I disagree with this: "I think it is fair to say that certain interpretations of the law can be disregarded. And that is not necessarily sinful."

The Pharisees clearly had an interpretation of the law that can be disregarded. The act of Jesus healing on the Sabbath was clearly not sin.

It is therefore necessarily the case that my quoted statement is true. The question comes back to "Which interpretations of law are correct?"

It can be a complicated topic at times.

 

[Jesusfollower]

You don't think eating your children is "horrifying? Have you ever read the Law of Moses?

It was a prophecy reaad below, this was taken from bibbehub;

link;https://biblehub.com/commentaries/leviticus/26-29.htm

i strongly recommend that you get the proper understanding and context before posting and judging others.


EXPOSITORY (ENGLISH BIBLE)
Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers
(29) And ye shall eat the flesh of your sons.—The harrowing scene here described is also depicted in Deuteronomy 28:53-57. This prediction actually came to pass at the siege of Samaria by the Syrians (2Kings 6:28-29), and at the siege of Jerusalem by the Chaldæans, which Jeremiah thus bewails, “the hands of pitiful women have sodden their own children, they were their meat in the destruction of the daughter of my people” (Lamentations 4:10; comp. also Jeremiah 19:9; Ezekiel 5:10; Zechariah 11:9, &c.). This also happened at the siege of Jerusalem by Titus. A woman named Mary killed her infant child and boiled it during the height of the famine, and after she had eaten part of it, the soldiers found the rest in her house.

Benson Commentary
Leviticus 26:29. Ye shall eat the flesh of your sons — Through extreme hunger. This is the very utmost calamity that could come upon a people. See it described at large, and in the most lively colours, Deuteronomy 28:53-57. It was fulfilled, first in the siege of Samaria, 2 Kings 6:29; next in the siege of Jerusalem before the Babylonish captivity, Lamentations 4:10; and finally, in the last destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans.

Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
26:14-39 After God has set the blessing before them which would make them a happy people if they would be obedient, he here sets the curse before them, the evils which would make them miserable, if they were disobedient. Two things would bring ruin. 1. A contempt of God's commandments. They that reject the precept, will come at last to renounce the covenant. 2. A contempt of his corrections. If they will not learn obedience by the things they suffer, God himself would be against them; and this is the root and cause of all their misery. And also, The whole creation would be at war with them. All God's sore judgments would be sent against them. The threatenings here are very particular, they were prophecies, and He that foresaw all their rebellions, knew they would prove so. TEMPORAL judgments are threatened. Those who will not be parted from their sins by the commands of God, shall be parted from them by judgments. Those wedded to their lusts, will have enough of them. SPIRITUAL judgments are threatened, which should seize the mind. They should find no acceptance with God. A guilty conscience would be their continual terror. It is righteous with God to leave those to despair of pardon, who presume to sin; and it is owing to free grace, if we are not left to pine away in the iniquity we were born in, and have lived in.

 

[Melach]

is the law of moses set aside? yes it is. some of the things right off the bat the new testament says we no longer are under: dietary laws, circumcision (big one) and sabbaths and new moon festivals etc.
not to mention the animal sacrifices which are gone.

Jesus during his ministry already did away with some OT rules. for example when He said you have heard it said eye for an eye tooth for a tooth,.... but I say. so He said something different.

we are under the law of Christ, not the law of Moses.

you cant be in two covenants at the same time.

 

[BillG]

 

[Blik]

In regard to the Ten commandments, He, Christ fulfilled the law, as well as the other laws. true i agree.

Matt. 5 tells us all about Christ fulfilling the law. In the first verses he explains that all the Father told us is truth and Christ does not change that truth. Then the rest of the chapter is telling us how he fulfilled five kinds of law, how Christ made the law perfect that was not perfect under Moses. Christ fulfilled and made perfect the law not to murder, adultery, divorce, an eye for an eye, and love your enemies.

 

[arthurfleminger]

The law of Moses was given in stone. Stone is lasting and true, but it is without love. It could be obeyed by the letter of the law rather than the spirit of the law, or with love. It was of the earth, even the blessings obedience brought were fleshly blessing of such as good crops. It was weak.

The Lord changed the law from being in stone to being in our hearts. We are told in Jeremiah 31:33 “This is the covenant I will make with the people of Israel after that time,”declares the Lord. I will put my law in their minds and write it on their hearts. I will be their God, and they will be my people.” This applies to all people who accept Christ. The law is no longer in stone, but the law is in our hearts.

The law is now changed from a weak law to a law with the spirit of love, a powerful law.

Jesus gave us the base of the true law of the Lord. "Jesus answered him," Love God, your God, with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind. " (Matthew 22:37)

John 1:17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ.

What exactly does the Law of Moses consist of???????????? What are you referring to. Different things are meant by the Law of Moses. Thanks

 

[Blik]

What exactly does the Law of Moses consist of???????????? What are you referring to. Different things are meant by the Law of Moses. Thanks

The law of Moses contains all the truths and commands the Lord gave Moses as he led the people in the wilderness.

 

[seed_time_harvest]

Nobody here obeys the Law of Moses. Any Law of Moses preachers know what "OBSOLETE" means?

Hebrews 8:13 (NKJV)
13 In that He says, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete.

But some want to do It even though they don’t keep It to the point of judging their brother who doesn’t abide by those laws such as the sabbath and eating pork and ect…

 

[Dino246]

We love the Lord who gives us salvation, and that means that we listen to his law and want to obey him all we can manage.

Christians are not required to obey the law given through Moses. Trying is a waste of time. You either try to maintain your own righteousness through obedience to to law, or you trust in Christ Who fulfilled it perfectly. There is no middle road.

 

[Dino246]

The law of Moses contains all the truths and commands the Lord gave Moses as he led the people in the wilderness.

And much of it was for Israel specifically, not for anyone else.

 

[seed_time_harvest]

The first tablets were destroyed by human hands

I think you’re missing the point.Although the stones WERE broken by human hands the stones represent the law and the law was given by GOD to Moses to give to the children of Israel so then knowing that GOD gave It through Moses then the law (tablets of Stone) Is not weak but Man Is weak.

 

[arthurfleminger]

The law of Moses contains all the truths and commands the Lord gave Moses as he led the people in the wilderness.

Blik, thanks for your response. But I'm still a bit confused. Does Paul ever mention the 'Law of Moses' or does he just cite the Law. If he just cites the Law is he referring to the man made ceremonial laws of the Old Testament or the moral laws, or both? I'm sure Paul was referring to such things as circumcision as he opposed that requirement at the Council of Jerusalem. When Paul speaks about the Law, is he including God's law, the 10 Commandments?

All Scripture is God breathed" describes the Bible’s nature as God’s literal word, given to men by inspiration of the Holy Spirit. This divine inspiration is the supernatural work of God’s Holy Spirit. This includes the Old Testament and the 10 Commandments.

The New Testament clearly shows us that the Old Testament is not obsolete as some on this thread would maintain. The Old Testament is part of God's Scripture and 2 Timothy 3:16-17 reads, “All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.”

Finally, despite much of the rhetoric on this thread, almost all the major Christian religious denominations of the world
recognize the 10 Commandments as being valid and effective today. See article:

Do All Denominations Believe in the 10 Commandments? Get the Facts – Christianity FAQ

 

[Blik]

And much of it was for Israel specifically, not for anyone else.

When Christ fulfilled the law of Moses and made it perfect, it was not for Israel only or for gentiles only. God created and speaks to man with his truths, to all men.

There is no scripture that states that God is for Israel only, gentiles only, or Jews only, hat tells any specific group not to listen to the Lord.

 

[Dino246]

When Christ fulfilled the law of Moses and made it perfect, it was not for Israel only or for gentiles only. God created and speaks to man with his truths, to all men.

There is no scripture that states that God is for Israel only, gentiles only, or Jews only, hat tells any specific group not to listen to the Lord.

Agreed. However, God gave the Law to Israel, not to the Gentiles. That is clearly established in Scripture.

Exodus 19:3-6 Then Moses went up to God, and the Lord called to him from the mountain and said, “This is what you are to say to the descendants of Jacob and what you are to tell the people of Israel: ‘You yourselves have seen what I did to Egypt, and how I carried you on eagles’ wings and brought you to myself. Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my treasured possession. Although the whole earth is mine, you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words you are to speak to the Israelites.”

Romans 2:14 Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law.

 

[gb9]

Agreed. However, God gave the Law to Israel, not to the Gentiles. That is clearly established in Scripture.

Exodus 19:3-6 Then Moses went up to God, and the Lord called to him from the mountain and said, “This is what you are to say to the descendants of Jacob and what you are to tell the people of Israel: ‘You yourselves have seen what I did to Egypt, and how I carried you on eagles’ wings and brought you to myself. Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my treasured possession. Although the whole earth is mine, you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words you are to speak to the Israelites.”

Romans 2:14 Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law.

i just recently read the Psalms .

if anyone can read them, and not realize the Law and Sabbath were given to Israel only, i do not what to say.

 

[Blik]

Agreed. However, God gave the Law to Israel, not to the Gentiles. That is clearly established in Scripture.

Exodus 19:3-6 Then Moses went up to God, and the Lord called to him from the mountain and said, “This is what you are to say to the descendants of Jacob and what you are to tell the people of Israel: ‘You yourselves have seen what I did to Egypt, and how I carried you on eagles’ wings and brought you to myself. Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my treasured possession. Although the whole earth is mine, you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words you are to speak to the Israelites.”

Romans 2:14 Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law.

This holy nation was to show the nations (idol worshipers) what
god was like. God has always loved and cared for all man. There is scripture telling of God speaking to Israel, but there is no scripture telling all people God doesn't want them to listen to his truths.

Why are you accepting Christ as your God, if you are so sure it is for Israel only?

 

[Blik]

i just recently read the Psalms .

if anyone can read them, and not realize the Law and Sabbath were given to Israel only, i do not what to say.

If you are a gentile, and you believe this, why are you snooping into someone else's mail? If you are so sure about this "Israel only", yet you accept Christ as NOT Israel only, just when do you think God got off this speaking to only one group of people?

 

[gb9]

If you are a gentile, and you believe this, why are you snooping into someone else's mail? If you are so sure about this "Israel only", yet you accept Christ as NOT Israel only, just when do you think God got off this speaking to only one group of people?

you have had this explained to you so many times, and ignored it, one more will do no good.

 

[Pilgrimshope]

Agreed. However, God gave the Law to Israel, not to the Gentiles. That is clearly established in Scripture.

Exodus 19:3-6 Then Moses went up to God, and the Lord called to him from the mountain and said, “This is what you are to say to the descendants of Jacob and what you are to tell the people of Israel: ‘You yourselves have seen what I did to Egypt, and how I carried you on eagles’ wings and brought you to myself. Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my treasured possession. Although the whole earth is mine, you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words you are to speak to the Israelites.”

Romans 2:14 Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law.

yes because they didn’t have the law they had no covenant only israel did. It seperated them Out from all other gentile nations as gods only chosen nation

“Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

that at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

but now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances;

for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; and that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: and came and preached peace to you which were afar off, ( gentile ) and to them that were nigh.”(Jew )
‭‭Ephesians‬ ‭2:11-17‬ ‭KJV‬‬

the gentile nations were already guilty and lost only israel was chosen in the ot it’s why they only had the law

but he sent the gospel to all nations

 

[Dino246]

Why are you accepting Christ as your God, if you are so sure it is for Israel only?

Did I say anything about Christ there? No.