Jesus' baptism was an identification with the Father's plan for Him as Messiah.
ID with the Father makes no sense. Please detail your thought with scriptures for credibility.
Jesus' baptism was an identification with the Father's plan for Him as Messiah.
We do not teach a legalistic gospel. For example,
Acts 22:16
16 And now what are you waiting for? Get up, be baptized and wash your sins away, calling on his name.’
What washes away your sins? Water or the blood of Christ?
Titus 3:5
He saved us, not because of works done by us in righteousness, but according to his own mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewal of the Holy Spirit,
Nope. The cleansing rituals for human preparation before the sin sacrifices.
Hi Brother Roughsoul.
Well, the verse says, "be baptized and wash away your sins". If Baptism was just a symbol, Apostle Paul would never have said that. We hold that the Blood of Christ washes away our sins IN the Baptismal Fount. That jibes with what St. Paul was saying "be baptized, and wash away your sins".
If you read the Early Church Fathers, it is clear that virtually all of them, including some of whom were disciples of the Apostles, believed in Baptismal Regeneration. Because we cannot literally be washed in Blood, Christ gave us Baptism to signify that Washing.
Here's an article: https://www.calledtocommunion.com/2010/06/the-church-fathers-on-baptismal-regeneration/
"II. Church Fathers on Baptism
A. Second Century Fathers
In AD 107, St. Ignatius, bishop of Antioch, wrote a letter to the Church at Ephesus, while being escorted by Roman soldiers to Rome to be martyred. In that letter he writes:
For our God, Jesus Christ, was, according to the appointment of God, conceived in the womb by Mary, of the seed of David, but by the Holy Ghost. He was born and baptized, that by His passion He might purify the water. (Epistle to the Ephesians, 18)This notion that Christ purified the waters is found in other Church Fathers as well, but this is the earliest record we have of the statement. Christ was not purified by being baptized, since Christ was already pure. Rather, in His baptism, the waters were purified for our sake, that when we are baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, we are purified, not by the removal of dirt from the body, but by the forgiveness of sin and the reception of the Life of God within us."
I believe Christ was Baptized in order to purify the water. Water purifies us by His Blood, but He Himself had no need of purification. That imo is the meaning of "fulfil all righteousness". Another thing the Church Fathers explain is that Blood and Water flowed out from the pierced Heart of Christ on the Cross, to signify that being washed in the water of Baptism is like being washed in the Blood of Christ. As mentioned earlier, John the Baptist, St. Peter and the Nicene Creed say Baptism "is for the remission of sins", i.e. forgiveness.
God Bless,
N. Xavier.
His water baptism is quite different than believer's baptism.
His water baptism was His identification with His Father's will.
You say Im wrong but only repeated the same defeated interpretation of others.
What do you think it means that Jesus would baptise with fire?
Old Testament washings were almost always for those of the already believing community. They symbolized cleansing from sin and guilt. Whereas sacrifices were to atone for acts of sin, washing or bathing seems generally associated with cleansing from a sinful or otherwise unholy condition. sourceYep......That was skin cleansing......not sin cleansing.
Keep it in context.
The FACT that Jesus was The Elect One. The Father chose Him to be the Messiah and to die for everyone.ID with the Father makes no sense. Please detail your thought with scriptures for credibility.
Why do you continue in your dishonesty by quoting only a part of this verse? The baptism that saves is the baptism of the Spirit, as proven by the account of Cornelius in Acts 10 and 11.Baptism is Required
Peter 3: 21.... whereunto even baptism doth also now save us...
Do you really not understand any of this???His ID with the Father was being crucified ...the ultra sacrifice...need He do more?
Geesscch.
Biblicaly speaking you need to read/study John chapter 1 - Peace and have a good day
It was explained in the post. His baptism was the first among many actions that foreshadow His sacrifice.
Jesus told John He was to be baptized to fulfill all righteousness.The correct answer is that the baptism of Jesus was not symbolic of anything. It was
literal and sets the standard and example for all of His followers to literally follow.
I don't think so, that'd be you sir. Have a great day.
Let's see what the Bible actually says:People seem to be wanting to assign non-literal, symbolic meaning, to verses like Romans 6:4,5 that say you must be baptized in order to be resurrected like Christ was. A literal resurrection is coming and to be in it you need to be baptized like Jesus, like Paul said, like Peter said. Without faith in the process that occurs during water baptism, it's just an act of getting wet. This isn't symbolic, but quite literal.
It doesn't save. Have you now flip flopped on this?The Bible has so much more to say about water baptism than getting wet, it's about faith in obeying God's commands, faith that it "saves",
1 Peter 3 does NOT say this. You just aren't able to discern the difference between water and Holy Spirit baptism.faith that it can wash away sins, faith that it will result in being in the first resurrection like 1 Peter 3 says, among others.
The context shows that Nic thought that to be "born again" meant to enter into his mother's womb a second time. So Jesus clarified by telling him, man must be spiritually born after being physically born.John 3:4,5 KJV
4Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born? 5Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
Now before anyone says John 3:4,5 is about live birth from a mother's embryonic fluid, that Nicodemus made the mistake of thinking that too, saying "How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?" where Jesus spent the next several verses correcting Nicodemus, trying to teach him spiritual truths, saying, "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."
Jesus was in complete disagreement with Nicodemus. "Water and Spirit" are water baptism and the Holy Spirit.
Except that v.9-20 are NOT found in any of the earliest manuscripts. The verses were all added later. They are NOT inspired.Another reference to water and Spirit:
Mark 16:16 KJV
16He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned
You are just showing your extreme lack of understanding. The issue isn't "literal" or not.The correct answer is that the baptism of Jesus was not symbolic of anything. It was literal and sets the standard and example for all of His followers to literally follow.
Jesus told John He was to be baptized to fulfill all righteousness.
So then the question must be asked, did Jesus fulfill all righteousness, or not?
I say yes. Yes, Jesus fulfilled all righteousness. He went to the cross sinless and paid the sin debt in full.
We do not attain righteousness by being baptized, but by grace through faith in His shed righteous blood.
You are correct in saying "the Holy Spirit was not upon Him."
It is biblically correct that the Holy Spirit was in Him before His water baptism.
Hope this cleared things up and forgive me for not making the distinction in my prior post.
My brain runneth over and my words did not catch-up.
Hi Brother Roughsoul.
Well, the verse says, "be baptized and wash away your sins". If Baptism was just a symbol, Apostle Paul would never have said that. We hold that the Blood of Christ washes away our sins IN the Baptismal Fount. That jibes with what St. Paul was saying "be baptized, and wash away your sins".
If you read the Early Church Fathers, it is clear that virtually all of them, including some of whom were disciples of the Apostles, believed in Baptismal Regeneration. Because we cannot literally be washed in Blood, Christ gave us Baptism to signify that Washing.
Here's an article: https://www.calledtocommunion.com/2010/06/the-church-fathers-on-baptismal-regeneration/
"II. Church Fathers on Baptism
A. Second Century Fathers
In AD 107, St. Ignatius, bishop of Antioch, wrote a letter to the Church at Ephesus, while being escorted by Roman soldiers to Rome to be martyred. In that letter he writes:
For our God, Jesus Christ, was, according to the appointment of God, conceived in the womb by Mary, of the seed of David, but by the Holy Ghost. He was born and baptized, that by His passion He might purify the water. (Epistle to the Ephesians, 18)This notion that Christ purified the waters is found in other Church Fathers as well, but this is the earliest record we have of the statement. Christ was not purified by being baptized, since Christ was already pure. Rather, in His baptism, the waters were purified for our sake, that when we are baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, we are purified, not by the removal of dirt from the body, but by the forgiveness of sin and the reception of the Life of God within us."
I believe Christ was Baptized in order to purify the water. Water purifies us by His Blood, but He Himself had no need of purification. That imo is the meaning of "fulfil all righteousness". Another thing the Church Fathers explain is that Blood and Water flowed out from the pierced Heart of Christ on the Cross, to signify that being washed in the water of Baptism is like being washed in the Blood of Christ. As mentioned earlier, John the Baptist, St. Peter and the Nicene Creed say Baptism "is for the remission of sins", i.e. forgiveness.
God Bless,
N. Xavier.