I am the only person on Earth that believes Genesis 2:17

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Apr 24, 2022
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#21
Do you believe that they were LITERALLY corpses lying on the ground?
BINGO!!! Ding, ding, ding!

Yes, I believe it was literal, and I am greatly hated for that BTW... lol. Just for taking my Bible literally, I am some kind of evil person.

The irony is Crazy.

For crying out loud, this is what the "new birth" or being "born again" is all about.
Born Again does not always mean receiving a Glorified Body. This is an assumption...

John 3:4
"Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother’s womb, and be born?"


Did Jesus say no? He did not. Yet, just about everyone assumes the answer is yes.

I do not assume anything.

We were all once "dead in trespasses and sins" until the time came that God "quickened" us or made us alive in Christ.
Yes indeed. We were dead... literally. Do you know how I know this? The Word of God taught me.

The word 'Quickened' is a very special word. Only that which was once physically dead can be quickened...

1 Corinthians 15:36
"Thou fool, that which thou sowest is not quickened, except it die:"


There are no exceptions. You know that the Bible does not contradict itself. You see it in black and white.

Look at how the phrase 'thou fool' is added, showing how critical it is to know this vital piece of information, and to take it seriously.

I have absolutely no problem in the world with it. I defy anyone to prove that it is in contradiction with the rest of the Bible.

Until then, folks should reserve judgment.
 
Apr 24, 2022
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#22
Adam lived to be 930 years old and had multiple sons and daughters with Eve.
Which Adam was that?

Note that Jesus is the Last Adam...

1 Corinthians 15:45
"And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit."


There was a First Adam... and there was a Last Adam. This implies that there was a Second Adam, a Third Adam, and so forth.

The Adam you are referring to, according to Genesis, is the Second Adam.

The First Adam died, remember?

Genesis 3:6
"And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat."


That was the moment the First Adam, along with his Wife, died... totally and physically, on that very day.

Did God lie?
 
L

Live4Him2

Guest
#23
BINGO!!! Ding, ding, ding!

Yes, I believe it was literal, and I am greatly hated for that BTW... lol. Just for taking my Bible literally, I am some kind of evil person.

The irony is Crazy.


Born Again does not always mean receiving a Glorified Body. This is an assumption...

John 3:4
"Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother’s womb, and be born?"


Did Jesus say no? He did not. Yet, just about everyone assumes the answer is yes.

I do not assume anything.


Yes indeed. We were dead... literally. Do you know how I know this? The Word of God taught me.

The word 'Quickened' is a very special word. Only that which was once physically dead can be quickened...

1 Corinthians 15:36
"Thou fool, that which thou sowest is not quickened, except it die:"


There are no exceptions. You know that the Bible does not contradict itself. You see it in black and white.

Look at how the phrase 'thou fool' is added, showing how critical it is to know this vital piece of information, and to take it seriously.

I have absolutely no problem in the world with it. I defy anyone to prove that it is in contradiction with the rest of the Bible.

Until then, folks should reserve judgment.
So, you were literally dead?

You're out of your mind.

And don't bother answering with, "Yes, I have the mind of Christ!" because you obviously don't.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
59,813
29,192
113
#24
Which Adam was that?

Note that Jesus is the Last Adam...

1 Corinthians 15:45
"And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit."


There was a First Adam... and there was a Last Adam. This implies that there was a Second Adam, a Third Adam, and so forth.

The Adam you are referring to, according to Genesis, is the Second Adam.

The First Adam died, remember?

Genesis 3:6
"And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat."


That was the moment the First Adam, along with his Wife, died... totally and physically, on that very day.

Did God lie?
The one God created, who fathered children with Eve, the mother of all living.

The rest of your hypotheses are logical fallacies.

Jesus is called the first and the last and does not imply there is a second, third and fourth, etc, Jesus.
 
Apr 24, 2022
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#25
Lol @Live4Him2 . Why do you judge so much? Good grief.

You know I was really hoping to talk about the Lowest Parts of the Earth with you. I guess I will talk to myself.

As I was trying to show you, Mystery Babylon is Earth who opened her mouth to drink the Blood of Righteous Abel who was slain...

Genesis 4:11
"And now art thou cursed from the earth, which hath opened her mouth to receive thy brother’s blood from thy hand;"


It is Earth who drinks the Blood of all who are slain. Now look at this verse...

Matthew 23:35
"That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar."


Surely you have read that verse before? That is where Jesus is connecting Earth with Jerusalem. They are related. The Blood that Earth drank is now placed on Earthly Jerusalem. Now the two are joined in a very special way. But how specifically?

Now for the tricky part...

Psalms 139:15
"My substance was not hid from thee, when I was made in secret, and curiously wrought in the lowest parts of the earth."


Everyone needs to drop what they are doing and meditate on the above verse. Think...

I was made = Baby developing in the Womb
Lowest Parts of the Earth = Hell

Why are babies developing in the Lowest Parts of the Earth? Why are babies coming from Hell? How did they get there?

Psalms 71:20
"Thou, which hast shewed me great and sore troubles, shalt quicken me again, and shalt bring me up again from the depths of the earth."


I believe it is literal! Is that such a crime?

Earth is Mystery Babylon, the MOTHER of what???...

Revelation 17:5
"And upon her forehead was a name written, MYSTERY, BABYLON THE GREAT, THE MOTHER OF HARLOTS AND ABOMINATIONS OF THE EARTH."


You know who the Harlots and Abominations are?

The Human Race!

It is us. We are the ones she gave birth to.

The Forbidden Fruit is in her hand...

Revelation 17:4
"And the woman was arrayed in purple and scarlet colour, and decked with gold and precious stones and pearls, having a golden cup in her hand full of abominations and filthiness of her fornication:"


The Forbidden Fruit is the ZYGOTE by which we all partook of to be born into this world. It is conception.

Again, ALL have partaken...

Jeremiah 51:7
"Babylon hath been a golden cup in the LORD’S hand, that made all the earth drunken: the nations have drunken of her wine; therefore the nations are mad."


Are you mad Bro?

The Golden Cup Zygote was fertilized by the Seed of the Serpent...

John 8:44
"Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it."


Again, it is literal. Satan is the Earthly Father of the Human Race. Mystery Babylon is the Earthly Mother. This is why we are born into sin. This is Jesus teaching this.

Adam and his Wife chose to incarnate into this Universe by partaking of the original Zygote on the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. Agar represents this bondage we are slaves to...

Galatians 4:24
"Which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, which is Agar."


Where did Jesus descend to?

Ephesians 4:9
"Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?"


Did Jesus burn in Hell? Of course not. The Lower/Lowest Parts of the Earth is the Womb.

Where did Jesus descend to first? Jesus descended first into Mary's Womb! Remember?

John 3:13
"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven."


Jesus descended into the Lowest Parts of the Earth... i.e... Mary's Womb to incarnate.

Simple and beautiful. :)
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,995
1,264
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#27
The infinitive absolute verb pairing explained.


Gen 2:17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.


When speaking to a human man and telling him that in the day he sins he will suffer a punishment could only be understood as a literal day wherein he would receive that punishment. The word day means warm, which obviously is a reference to the daylight part of day so this punishment did not occur at night. The word can mean longer than a day in a figurative sense but the context of the passage shows a literal use.

Adam sinned and not long after he died. It simply wasn't a physical death but the type of death any sinless person suffers when they sin for the first time. Sin is a moral/spiritual concept, and the death it brings to a person is spiritual.

Gen 2:17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.


It is claimed by some that this actually means "dying thou shalt die" and is conveying the meaning of "a continued action over a long period of time" meaning Adam began to physically age when he sinned and eventually would die but is this actually an accurate translation and interpretation? No. Allow me to explain:

Gen 2:17 But of the treeH4480 H6086 of the knowledgeH1847 of goodH2896 and evil,H7451 thou shalt notH3808 eatH398 ofH4480 it: forH3588 in the dayH3117 that thou eatestH398 thereofH4480 thou shalt surely die.H4191 H4191

Here we see the word "die" repeated twice, H4191 H4191.

One of the verbs will be written in a different verbal form than the other. That literally means one will have an extra hebrew letter/character despite being the same exact word. That spelling difference and which order the two verbs appear can alter the meaning of the verbs. One verb will be written in the infinitive absolute form. The other verb will be written in the conjugated/inflected form which has the extra letter/character. What the pair of verbs actually mean is based on which form appears first and which is second:

http://kukis.org/Languages/Hebrew4Dummies.pdf

The infinitive absolute has four uses: when found alone, it sometimes acts as an English gerund, so that we may add ING to the end of the verb;
This isn't relative because this is only when the verb is alone and not in a pair as it is in Gen 2:17.


When found directly before it's verbal cognate, it serves to intensify or strengthen the action or the meaning of the verb which follows
This is when the infinitive absolute form appears first or before the conjugated/inflected form.

When it follows it's cognate verb, it emphasizes the duration or the continuation of the verbal idea.
This is when the the conjugated/inflected verb form appears first or before infinitive absolute verb form.

So back to the verse and the pair of verbs:

Gen 2:17 But of the treeH4480 H6086 of the knowledgeH1847 of goodH2896 and evil,H7451 thou shalt notH3808 eatH398 ofH4480 it: forH3588 in the dayH3117 that thou eatestH398 thereofH4480 thou shalt surely die.H4191 H4191

Here we see the word "die" repeated twice, H4191 H4191 or using an english transliteration, "muth t'muth". "muth" is the infinitive absolute verb and "t'muth" is the conjugated/inflected verb.

So in Gen 2:17 is the first verb in the "infinitive absolute form" or is the first verb in the "conjugated/inflected form"?

In that verse the first verb is in the "infinitive absolute form" so it appears first: muth t'muth, so this meaning is the correct one:

When found directly before it's verbal cognate, it serves to intensify or strengthen the action or the meaning of the verb which follows
I will now prove that the infinitive absolute verb does appear first:

http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Gesenius'_Hebrew_Grammar/113._The_Infinitive_Absolute

113n (a) The infinitive absolute used before the verb to strengthen the verbal idea, i.e. to emphasize in this way either the certainty (especially in the case of threats) or the forcibleness and completeness of an occurrence. In English, such an infinitive is mostly expressed by a corresponding adverb, but sometimes merely by putting greater stress on the verb; e.g. Gen 2:17 ???? ???????? thou shalt surely die,
Confirmation it does indeed come first proving which meaning it conveys.


"dying thou shalt die" interpreted to mean "a continued action over a long period of time" and that Adam began to physically age when he sinned and eventually would die is an incorrect interpretation in Gen 2:17. Those that promote this understanding do not properly understand the "infinitive absolute verb pairing" because they are ignorant of the order of the verb forms involved and which meaning is conveyed by their order.

A translation hard to misunderstand would be either "a death thou shalt die" or how it's rendered in the KJV "thou shalt surely die" which shows how the infinitive absolute verb form intensifies or strengthens the meaning of the verb "die". "dying thou shalt die" does not convey a "continued action over a long period of time" though it is often understood in that errant way. Using the verb "dying" in that verse suggests the wrong meaning as if Adam just began the process of dying over time which did not start happening as soon as he sinned. The first verb is supposed to intensify or strengthen the action or the meaning of the second verb yet "dying thou shalt die" fails to convey that properly which leads to many false understandings of this verse. It is a very poor way to translate the Hebrew. "thou shalt surely die" properly conveys the meaning of the verb pairing which "intensifies or strengthens the action or the meaning of the verb" that follows the infinitive absolute verb.

Gesenius' Hebrew Grammer Lexicon:

http://www.studylight.org/lexicons/gesenius/view.cgi?n=113

(a) The infinitive absolute used before the verb to strengthen the verbal idea, i.e. to emphasize in this way either the certainty (especially in the case of threats) or the forcibleness and completeness of an occurrence. In English, such an infinitive is mostly expressed by a corresponding adverb, but sometimes merely by putting greater stress on the verb; e.g. Genesis 2:17 "mut t'mut" thou shalt surely die
Note, again, that there is only one meaning when the infinitive absolute verb is first and the conjugated/inflected verb is second; "to strengthen the verbal idea". No other meaning can be attached yet you will find all kinds of articles and forum posts which do exactly that due to ignorance of the true meaning of the infinitive absolute/inflected verb pairing. Some will insist it can have both meanings but that is quite untrue!


So, Adam did NOT start to age and slowly die over a period of time when he sinned. The "infinitive absolute form" used in Gen 2:17 proves that theory to be incorrect. The death he experienced was completed at that very day he sinned just as God promised. Since he was still physically alive the only completed death he experienced that day can only be a spiritual/figurative death. He was not "dying" but "died". The Hebrew demands that meaning. He was born dying because he was created a mortal human being. Aging and physically dying was unrelated to his sin.



Simplified version:

Gen 2:17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.

When the Hebrew uses the same verb twice in a row one of the words will be spelled slightly different. One will be the infinitive absolute verb and the other is called the conjugated/inflected verb.

They can mean two different things but not both at the same time:

1. "a continued action over a long period of time" meaning death is a long process because the verb means death.

OR

2. "a future completed death spoken in an emphatic way" re-enforcing the fact that he would definitely/surely die the day he sinned.

It all depends on if the infinitive absolute verb is first and the conjugated/inflected verb is last, or vice versa.

In the manuscripts the the infinitive absolute verb is first and the conjugated/inflected verb is last so the meaning of the verb is "a future completed death spoken in an emphatic way" and NOT "a continued action over a long period of time" meaning death is a long process.

In order for the verb to mean "a continued action over a long period of time" meaning death is a long process it would have to have been the conjugated/inflected verb first and the infinitive absolute verb last but that is not how it appears in the manuscripts.



When it comes second as here: "t'muth muth" then it can only mean "a continued action over a long period of time" meaning death is a long process because the verb means death.

When the infinitive absolute verb comes first as it does here: "muth t'muth" it can only mean "a future completed death spoken in an emphatic way" and that is the order of the verb pairing in Gen 2:17.


I should explain what I mean by, "a future completed death spoken in an emphatic way" because I am aware the conjugated/inflected verb is in the imperfect which means an incompleted action. God spoke these words before Adam sinned which is why the death is not a completed action yet when God spoke those words but the use of the infinitive absolute verb pairing supports the fact that Adam would indeed die the day he sinned as opposed to an incomplete death ie: begin to die. God said he would die the day he sinned and he definitely did. God simply never explained what type of death it would be.
 

Inquisitor

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2022
2,859
845
113
#28
As far as I know, I appear to be the only Human Being on the planet that believes the following verse in its most literal sense...

Genesis 2:17
"But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die."


Everyone else changes the words around to make it say something else entirely. This is a no-no of course.

One of the reasons I signed up here is to see if there actually exists another person that believes the aforementioned verse.

Are you out there? Or am I the only one that simply believes what is says?
May I ask how you understand the following verse, given that it is another tree that grants eternal life.

Genesis 3:22
Then the Lord God said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil; and now, he might reach out with his hand, and take fruit also from the tree of life, and eat, and live forever
 
L

Live4Him2

Guest
#29
Which Adam was that?

Note that Jesus is the Last Adam...

1 Corinthians 15:45
"And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit."


There was a First Adam... and there was a Last Adam. This implies that there was a Second Adam, a Third Adam, and so forth.

The Adam you are referring to, according to Genesis, is the Second Adam.

The First Adam died, remember?

Genesis 3:6
"And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat."


That was the moment the First Adam, along with his Wife, died... totally and physically, on that very day.

Did God lie?
More nonsensical heresy.

Here's what I Corinthians 15:45 actually says, IN CONTEXT:

I Corinthians chapter 15

[45] And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
[46] Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.
[47] The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.

From God's perspective, there are only two Adams or two men, and NOT "a Second Adam, a Third Adam, and so forth" as you allege.

In other words, "in Adam all die" (I Cor. 15:22) or all are subject to physical death because of Adam's sin with the sole exception of Jesus Christ who was conceived of the Holy Ghost in Mary's womb.

Yes, "the last Adam" is "the second man"...despite your latest heretical claim.

You could use a good dose of the fear of God by which you need to depart from such evil and by which you might attain some actual knowledge and/or wisdom.

Well, it's time for bed...
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
59,813
29,192
113
#30
What did Adam call his Wife before the Fall?
Genesis 2:23 And the man said:

“This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called ‘woman,’
for out of man she was taken.”


We are not told when Adam was named, or by whom.

His name is first mentioned in Genesis 2:20.

In Hebrew Adam means: of the ground, reddish earth.

But Adam, the first man, named Eve, the first woman,
and we are told of this in Genesis 3:20.


And Adam named his wife Eve, because she would be the mother of all the living.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,995
1,264
113
#31
The words in the original language use an idiomatic construction literally translated as “dying you shall die.”

It actually does not and cannot mean that. I explained in a recent post.
 
Apr 24, 2022
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#32
It simply wasn't a physical death but the type of death any sinless person suffers when they sin for the first time. Sin is a moral/spiritual concept, and the death it brings to a person is spiritual.
There is no such thing as 'Spiritual Death' in the Bible. Even Wikipedia agrees...

"The phrase spiritual death is not found in Protestant scriptures, and definitions of the concept thus vary among Protestant Christians."

Spiritual death in Christianity - Wikipedia

Look everyone... I will make this simple.

What you folks call 'Spiritual Death' is in fact the Second Death. You just haven't realized this yet.

Here we see the word "die" repeated twice, H4191 H4191.
And there it is. "Die Die' = Twice Dead.

The First Adam and his Wife *DIED* after partaking of the Forbidden Fruit.

Next we read...

Genesis 3:7
"And the eyes of them both were opened, and they knew that they were naked; and they sewed fig leaves together, and made themselves aprons."


Do you know what just happened? This is called Bible Typology. Adam and his Wife just experienced the Resurrection of Damnation...

John 5:29
"And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation."

They had done evil. They died. They were resurrected. They were given bodies of flesh like we have now...

Genesis 3:21
"Unto Adam also and to his wife did the LORD God make coats of skins, and clothed them."


What are said Skins? Job answers...

Job 10:11
"Thou hast clothed me with skin and flesh, and hast fenced me with bones and sinews."


They were judged....

Genesis 3:16
"Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee."


Adam's Wife is given a new name. Why? Because she now has a Womb.

The Flaming Sword was a picture of the Lake of Fire in which they passed through.

Again, Bible Typology.
 
Apr 24, 2022
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#33
Genesis 2:23 And the man said:

“This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called ‘woman,’
for out of man she was taken.”
Perfect. Thank you for that.

Read it carefully.

The first Woman created was not Eve. Her name was Ishshah, commonly translated as Woman.

You folks have no idea in the world she ever existed. What a shame.

After Ishshah died, she was resurrected and re-created with a Womb, as the BEASTS have.

The Second Adam gives this *NEW CREATION* a name...

Genesis 3:20
"And Adam called his wife’s name Eve; because she was the mother of all living."


And there you have it.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
59,813
29,192
113
#34
It actually does not and cannot mean that. I explained in a recent post.
Variants of the phrase “dying you shall die” occur 49 times in the Old Testament. Of these, two
are involved in the story of the fall of man—one in Genesis 2:17 and the other in Genesis 3:4.

This same idiom appears twice more in Genesis, in chapters 20, and 26.

In the remainder of the Pentateuch, variations of “dying you shall die” occur 26 times.
In 23 cases, the writers use this phrase to state the penalty for various crimes including
murder, Sabbath breaking, bestiality, and blasphemy. In each text, God is announcing
criminal or civil laws with their penalties. Additionally, these capital penalties are
interspersed among other laws with lesser punishments. It seems unquestionable that
in these 23 occurrences, “dying you shall die” announces a legal penalty for breaking
specific laws. Thus, these 23 texts align well with the two other uses in Genesis. All
announce a punishment to be given for breaking a law or command.
source

I did not see your post? And it is now bed time...
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,995
1,264
113
#37
Variants of the phrase “dying you shall die” occur 49 times in the Old Testament. Of these, two
are involved in the story of the fall of man—one in Genesis 2:17 and the other in Genesis 3:4.

It's far more than just an idiom. The order of the two words and how they are spelled affects what it means. The “dying you shall die” meaning is not found in the manuscripts in Gen 2.


Read this:


https://christianchat.com/threads/i...hat-believes-genesis-2-17.205332/post-4831531
 
Apr 24, 2022
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#38
I will now demonstrate what happens if we simply let 'Day' mean day... as in twenty-four hours or less.

Some believe there are two creation accounts in Genesis. They are, in a sense, correct if they apply it to Adam and his Wife.

Observe...

Genesis 2:4
"These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens"


We have a timeline being constructed here. When did God make Earth? Day Three.

What moment in time are we talking about here?

Genesis 2:5
"And every plant of the field before it was in the earth, and every herb of the field before it grew: for the LORD God had not caused it to rain upon the earth, and there was not a man to till the ground."


Perfect. We are now on the Third Day, just before plants were made. In other words, we are at the moment just before any form of life existed on Planet Earth. What happens next?

Genesis 2:7
"And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul."


Oopsies!!!

My what an Inconvenient Truth we have here. Seems Adam ROSE ON THE THIRD DAY. Sound familiar?

1 Corinthians 15:4
"And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:"


Lucky there is no problem here. The First Adam died after partaking of the Forbidden Fruit.

God recreates him here...

Genesis 1:27
"So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them."


Two creation accounts? Yep.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,995
1,264
113
#39
You should stop plagiarizing other peoples work.


https://www.ministrymagazine.org/archive/2011/12/dying-you-shall-die



Variants of the phrase “dying you shall die” occur 49 times in the Old Testament. Of these, two
are involved in the story of the fall of man—one in Genesis 2:17 and the other in Genesis 3:4.

This same idiom appears twice more in Genesis, in chapters 20, and 26.

In the remainder of the Pentateuch, variations of “dying you shall die” occur 26 times.
In 23 cases, the writers use this phrase to state the penalty for various crimes including
murder, Sabbath breaking, bestiality, and blasphemy. In each text, God is announcing
criminal or civil laws with their penalties. Additionally, these capital penalties are
interspersed among other laws with lesser punishments. It seems unquestionable that
in these 23 occurrences, “dying you shall die” announces a legal penalty for breaking
specific laws. Thus, these 23 texts align well with the two other uses in Genesis. All
announce a punishment to be given for breaking a law or command.
source

I did not see your post? And it is now bed time...
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,995
1,264
113
#40
I will now demonstrate what happens if we simply let 'Day' mean day... as in twenty-four hours or less.

Some believe there are two creation accounts in Genesis. They are, in a sense, correct if they apply it to Adam and his Wife.

Observe...

Genesis 2:4
"These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens"


We have a timeline being constructed here. When did God make Earth? Day Three.

What moment in time are we talking about here?

Genesis 2:5
"And every plant of the field before it was in the earth, and every herb of the field before it grew: for the LORD God had not caused it to rain upon the earth, and there was not a man to till the ground."


Perfect. We are now on the Third Day, just before plants were made. In other words, we are at the moment just before any form of life existed on Planet Earth. What happens next?

Genesis 2:7
"And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul."


Oopsies!!!

My what an Inconvenient Truth we have here. Seems Adam ROSE ON THE THIRD DAY. Sound familiar?

1 Corinthians 15:4
"And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:"


Lucky there is no problem here. The First Adam died after partaking of the Forbidden Fruit.

God recreates him here...

Genesis 1:27
"So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them."


Two creation accounts? Yep.
You have them backwards. Man was first created on the 6th day, Adam created the day after the day of rest. There was no re-creation of any certain person.