How is the KJV corrupt?
- Thread starter TheLearner
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
my faith is in the faithfulness of Christ.
i'm still a bit bewildered about saying God has faith, since faith is the evidence of things unseen -- but nothing is hidden from His sight.
God having faithfulness? being worthy of our trust? absolutely.
i'm still a bit bewildered about saying God has faith, since faith is the evidence of things unseen -- but nothing is hidden from His sight.
God having faithfulness? being worthy of our trust? absolutely.
-
1
- Show all
hmm i heard NKV is corrupt tho
hehehe
in kjv 'temple' is italicized, in the preceding verse where they ask Simon if Jesus pays the tax?
the italics indicating it is not actually in the text.
the actual text calls it 'the didrachmas' which is, two-drachmas.
so everyone knew it as a tax paid in Greek currency.
i do agree that what's probably being referred to here is a temple tax, most likely imposed to pay for the Herodian construction projects on the temple mount, and has reference to the tax Moses imposed in Exodus 30, a half shekel from every male above 20 when the census was taken. i also believe this tax in Christ's day was being taken not according to the law but simply by the ruling government, but probably used Exodus 30 as a justification -- a false justification, as it were, because there isn't any indication in Exodus that this was to be a perpetual tax. it reads as a one-time tax, when the census is taken. Exodus associates it with redemption/atonement, Exodus 30:16
in Exodus it is a half-shekel. which is Hebrew money. so it is, to me, quite interesting that by 1st century this turned into 2 drachmas. which is Greek money.
hehehe
in kjv 'temple' is italicized, in the preceding verse where they ask Simon if Jesus pays the tax?
the italics indicating it is not actually in the text.
the actual text calls it 'the didrachmas' which is, two-drachmas.
so everyone knew it as a tax paid in Greek currency.
i do agree that what's probably being referred to here is a temple tax, most likely imposed to pay for the Herodian construction projects on the temple mount, and has reference to the tax Moses imposed in Exodus 30, a half shekel from every male above 20 when the census was taken. i also believe this tax in Christ's day was being taken not according to the law but simply by the ruling government, but probably used Exodus 30 as a justification -- a false justification, as it were, because there isn't any indication in Exodus that this was to be a perpetual tax. it reads as a one-time tax, when the census is taken. Exodus associates it with redemption/atonement, Exodus 30:16
in Exodus it is a half-shekel. which is Hebrew money. so it is, to me, quite interesting that by 1st century this turned into 2 drachmas. which is Greek money.
-
1
- Show all
Lol, doesn’t even make sense. ESV…faith in Jesus Christ is given them that believe in Jesus Christ…🤔🤔🤔
22 But the Scripture imprisoned everything under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.
16 yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
22 But the Scripture imprisoned everything under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.
16 yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
Hebrews 5
7 Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared;
8 Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered;
9 And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
7 Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared;
8 Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered;
9 And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
maybe this comes down to my view of Christ, yes
i believe it's more correct to say He adds Humanity to Himself.
i believe Jesus is at all times 100% God and 100% human, of one nature, not two disparate ones. so His humanity is perfect, in which sense He never has any sin and cannot be tempted. but He is also absolutely and completely God, so 'having faith' is a weird concept, in the way i understand us as humans to have faith in God, who is a totally different person than us.
for Jesus, God is exactly who He is. so i am having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that He has faith in Himself??
maybe i'm just anthropomorphizing, and speaking of Christ having faith is just a compromise we have to make to speak about the greatest of all mysteries, the God-man, the hypostatic union. that our language is simply incapable of adequately handling the subject.
however if our language is insufficient to describe the mystery of godliness, then that means no translation is 'perfect' -- because the Word is spiritual, and spiritually understood. our carnal languages are only pointing to the reality, which is made of abstract ideas and knowledge, not mere words.
amazing that God put these infinite things in a finite book!!!
i believe it's more correct to say He adds Humanity to Himself.
i believe Jesus is at all times 100% God and 100% human, of one nature, not two disparate ones. so His humanity is perfect, in which sense He never has any sin and cannot be tempted. but He is also absolutely and completely God, so 'having faith' is a weird concept, in the way i understand us as humans to have faith in God, who is a totally different person than us.
for Jesus, God is exactly who He is. so i am having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that He has faith in Himself??
maybe i'm just anthropomorphizing, and speaking of Christ having faith is just a compromise we have to make to speak about the greatest of all mysteries, the God-man, the hypostatic union. that our language is simply incapable of adequately handling the subject.
however if our language is insufficient to describe the mystery of godliness, then that means no translation is 'perfect' -- because the Word is spiritual, and spiritually understood. our carnal languages are only pointing to the reality, which is made of abstract ideas and knowledge, not mere words.
amazing that God put these infinite things in a finite book!!!
-
1
-
1
- Show all
In British Columbia, the government fronted the money for the construction of the 'Coquihalla Highway' but installed toll booths to collect back the cost. Once the highway debt was paid, the toll booths were removed.
Of course, they might have regretted that decision after several bridges on that highway were washed out recently.
Of course, they might have regretted that decision after several bridges on that highway were washed out recently.
-
1
- Show all