In Luke 24, Jesus said that repentance of sins should be preached in His name. So someone could read that and say the remission comes through preaching Jesus name, and that the baptism worked because of that, or read it as option 1, and the baptism is option 2. I consider these approaches 'reductionist' as opposed to looking at the overall picture of what scripture teaches on salvation. If we read Matthew, we see Jesus wanted the nations baptized. Luke continues his story in Acts, and we see how Peter emphasizes baptism in Acts 2:38, and it was important in Acts 10-11 as well.
But there is an argument for it. For example, Romans 10:9-10 says if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in thine heart that God raised Him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
So what if someone appears before God on the day of judgment. He says he was an unchurched unbeliever and had only heard Jesus' name used as an expletive until he met a Christian who told him about Jesus and showed him four Bible verses, Romans 10:9-10, "Whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD shall be saved." and "Whosoever believes on Him shall not be put to shame." And he says he confessed his sin, repented of it, confessed Jesus as Lord, and believed that He rose from the dead. He hadn't heard about baptism yet, and he got hit by a bus.
Can you or I judge and say that God would not save that man? Does God have the right to remit His sins without baptism? Christ had the right to tell the thief on the cross that he would be with Him in paradise. I John talks about praying for someone who sins not unto death. Baptism is for the remission of sins, but didn't God forgive sins in the Old Testament. We should fully embrace, teach, and encourage baptism, but do we have a right to limit God only to forgive sins through this means He has provided?
But there is an argument for it. For example, Romans 10:9-10 says if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in thine heart that God raised Him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
So what if someone appears before God on the day of judgment. He says he was an unchurched unbeliever and had only heard Jesus' name used as an expletive until he met a Christian who told him about Jesus and showed him four Bible verses, Romans 10:9-10, "Whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD shall be saved." and "Whosoever believes on Him shall not be put to shame." And he says he confessed his sin, repented of it, confessed Jesus as Lord, and believed that He rose from the dead. He hadn't heard about baptism yet, and he got hit by a bus.
Can you or I judge and say that God would not save that man? Does God have the right to remit His sins without baptism? Christ had the right to tell the thief on the cross that he would be with Him in paradise. I John talks about praying for someone who sins not unto death. Baptism is for the remission of sins, but didn't God forgive sins in the Old Testament. We should fully embrace, teach, and encourage baptism, but do we have a right to limit God only to forgive sins through this means He has provided?
Absolutely!
All will stand before God and will answer for their choice and life only to God. His judgments are righteous!
I have been baptized but to me it is symbolic of being buried and rising again as a new creature of Christ.
It does NOT save! Only believing in Jesus' shed blood for the forgiveness of our sins plus confessing that belief brings salvation.
When we repent or have godly sorrow, ask God's forgiveness,change our mind and begin a relationship with him are we saved.
As you've said NOT everyone can be baptized before death!
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