Saved by Water

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justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
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It's not reasonable to take a single event (Acts 2), claim that is the "rule", and then say that a different single event is an exception and doesn't need to follow the rule. It's either a rule, or it isn't. I go with the latter.
You have every right to make that gamble on your own salvation.

However, I am sad for you because I believe that you are going to lose the bet.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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"every one of you" is obviously referring to the whole group!
Nope

If it was. It would also be second person plural. Just like the command to repent was.

Every one of you is spoken to individuals. not the whole group. We can not change the rules of language
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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You have every right to make that gamble on your own salvation.

However, I am sad for you because I believe that you are going to lose the bet.
That's an incredibly insipid comment.

How about you stick to discussing what Scripture says, and means, and avoid making ignorant judgments about the salvation of others.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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Nope

If it was. It would also be second person plural. Just like the command to repent was.

Every one of you is spoken to individuals. not the whole group. We can not change the rules of language
"You" is both a singular and a plural personal pronoun.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
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Nope

If it was. It would also be second person plural. Just like the command to repent was.

Every one of you is spoken to individuals. not the whole group. We can not change the rules of language
You are obviously blind to the reality of the English language because of your bias.

Even if "you" is singular, the rest of the sentence structure shows that Paul is referring to the entire group; as he is referring to "every one" of you.

May the Lord open your eyes to the truth!
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
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That's an incredibly insipid comment.

How about you stick to discussing what Scripture says, and means, and avoid making ignorant judgments about the salvation of others.
As much as I love you, I think that you are placing your bet on the wrong horse and are not going to make it unless you change your bet.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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As much as I love you, I think that you are placing your bet on the wrong horse and are not going to make it unless you change your bet.
Either withdraw the judgment and we'll continue discussing Scripture, or stick to your folly. I'm not placing any bets.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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Nope... I am not accusing anyone of anything but am identifying a teaching as false.
You are accusing Dan of spreading false teachings. Otherwise you would
not have singled out his post to respond to by saying "False teaching."
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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Act 2:38, Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Act 2:39, For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
I do believe that the referenced scripture means exactly what it says. It does convey one can be assured they will receive the Holy Ghost if they believe and obey the command to be water baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. However, this does not mean everyone automatically receives the Holy Ghost the moment they are obedient to the command. This truth is seen in the Gentile as well as Samaritan conversion experiences noted in scriptures. (Acts 10:43-48, 8:12-18)
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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...

Further, the Gentiles in Acts 10 received the Holy Spirit before being baptized in water, which means your "conditional promise" is simply not valid in every case, therefore it is not a condition at all.
Obedience to everything stated by Peter on the Day of Pentecost is necessary to acquire one's spiritual rebirth. (Acts 2:38-39)

Something many fail to notice in the Gentile conversion account is that Peter begins by telling the group that it is THROUGH HIS (Jesus) NAME that believers will have their sins are remitted. (verse 43) The experience of remitting sin did not occur until verse 48. Notice it is at that point Peter commands the group to submit to being water baptized IN THE NAME OF THE LORD.

Acts 10:43-48
43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.

44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.
45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.
46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,

47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?

48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Obedience to everything stated by Peter on the Day of Pentecost is necessary to acquire one's spiritual rebirth. (Acts 2:38-39)

Something many fail to notice in the Gentile conversion account is that Peter begins by telling the group that it is THROUGH HIS (Jesus) NAME that believers will have their sins are remitted. (verse 43) The experience of remitting sin did not occur until verse 48. Notice it is at that point Peter commands the group to submit to being water baptized IN THE NAME OF THE LORD.

Acts 10:43-48
43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.

44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.
45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.
46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,

47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?

48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord.
Your assertion (bolded) is not supported by Scripture. Nothing in verse 48 (or anywhere else) suggests that remission of sins did not occur until verse 48. The Holy Spirit came on the gentiles in verse 44, which strongly suggests that their sins were remitted at that point, and not 'later' upon water baptism, or Peter's commanding thereof. Only when you hold an a priori belief that baptism is salvific can you conclude that verse 48 is the point of remission; such a view cannot be supported by this passage alone.
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
5,273
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...
In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins.
Actually verse 43 mentions that it is THROUGH JESUS NAME that believers receive remission of sins.

Verse 48 - Peter commands the group be baptized in the name of the Lord. It is at that moment that verse 43 is fulfilled. This is a direct parallel to Peter's initial message given in Acts 2:38-39.

This truth is also seen in Ananias instruction to Paul in Acts 22:14-16. It is in obedience to God's command that everyone be water baptized that personal sins are washed away.


43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.

44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.
45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.
46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,
47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?

48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord.
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
5,273
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Your assertion (bolded) is not supported by Scripture. Nothing in verse 48 (or anywhere else) suggests that remission of sins did not occur until verse 48. The Holy Spirit came on the gentiles in verse 44, which strongly suggests that their sins were remitted at that point, and not 'later' upon water baptism, or Peter's commanding thereof. Only when you hold an a priori belief that baptism is salvific can you conclude that verse 48 is the point of remission; such a view cannot be supported by this passage alone.
Actually verse 43 mentions that it is THROUGH JESUS NAME that believers receive remission of sins. Elsewhere in scripture it is confirmed that in water baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus that one's sins are remitted.

Jesus said that repentance and remission of sin would be preached in His name beginning in Jerusalem. This occurred on the Day of Pentecost as Jesus prophesied. (Luke 24:47)

Acts 2:38-39
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

Acts 22:14-16 (Paul's water baptism)
And he said, The God of our fathers hath chosen thee, that thou shouldest know his will, and see that Just One, and shouldest hear the voice of his mouth.
For thou shalt be his witness unto all men of what thou hast seen and heard.
And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Actually verse 43 mentions that it is THROUGH JESUS NAME that believers receive remission of sins. Elsewhere in scripture it is confirmed that in water baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus that one's sins are remitted.
Where else in Scripture? The verses you quoted don't support that assertion.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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"You" is both a singular and a plural personal pronoun.
in english you are correct.

However in the greek we have a plural and singular form.

that is why it is not seen in modern english version. and why it is so easily misrepresented today

It is however seen in old English. where Ye was the plural form

repent YE and let everyone of YOU be baptized
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
61,191
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in english you are correct.

However in the greek we have a plural and singular form.

that is why it is not seen in modern english version. and why it is so easily misrepresented today

It is however seen in old English. where Ye was the plural form

repent YE and let everyone of YOU be baptized
In Early Modern English, "ye" functioned as both an informal plural and formal singular second-person nominative pronoun.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
6,066
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You are obviously blind to the reality of the English language because of your bias.
says the one who would rather use the flawed english language which is lacking, vs the language the actual words were written in.

Which is more accurate? The English or the greek

Lets see your bias....

Even if "you" is singular, the rest of the sentence structure shows that Paul is referring to the entire group; as he is referring to "every one" of you.
Negative, because remission of sin is singuar also.

The language does not allow it to be used as you see.

it does not work in any language

here let me give you a language lesson.

pronouns

1st person - I, me, my, mine (singular) we, us our ours (plural)

2nd person - You, Your, Your's (singular) You, Your, Yours (plural - In old english, use Ye instead of you for plural form of you)

3rd person - He, She, Him, Her, it (singular) They, Their, Them, Theirs (plural)

The word you is not even used 3rd person.

hence it would be like saying all of you repent. and let (him, her, it) be baptized.

May the Lord open your eyes to the truth!
My eyes are wide open. So much that I do not just look at a verse and make my belief fit that verse. I look at the whole picture. including the language used.

You need to take your own advice my friend
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
6,066
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In Early Modern English, "ye" functioned as both an informal plural and formal singular second-person nominative pronoun.
Yes

But in acts 2: 38, let everyone of you be baptized is in the 3rd person singular form, it is not second person singular or plural. Only repent is in that form. thats why in the old english it said repent ye..

It was a command given to everyone.