All I'm asking for is one single case of xenoglossia documented. So far I haven't seen one.
You can go to the Concordia Seminary and check out the documentation I referred you to. I also sent you a link to an article with many cases. Mark Rutlin was at Free Chapel in Gainesville, GA, the last I heard.
Dennis Balcombe had an article that contained his eye-witness testimony of hearing villagers speak in tongues, but either the author is down or Google is just as not of a good search engine for keywords as it was soon after it launched, possibly the latter. His daughter witnessed the same thing, based on her own eye witness ministry. A little research might actually put you in touch with one of them.
Your statement is a misrepresentation of what I said. I didn't say it was impossible, that's your language. What I said was that it wasn't Paul's meaning. And that most gibberish-speakers today claim angelic tongues is a misrepresentation of Paul's meaning.
Does 'hyperbole' refer to things that are possible or impossible. I've explained several times that these are 'extreme possibilities.' There is no reason to think these things are impossible except the commentator says, "because I say so. Paul suggests tongues of angels. We should accept it.
The flip-flop is your misunderstanding. I have not flip-flopped on anything at all. Let me be clear:
if there is even one single documented case of xenoglossia, I'd like to see it. It would include a video of the speaker, and some form of translation, indicating what language it is. Are you clear now about what I'm asking for?
Eye witness testimony is a Biblical form of evidence. I do not have a video collection for you. You could check out Concordia Seminary if you are interested in seeing if they have recordings.
I believe everything in the Bible.
Do you believe the Spirit distributes gifts including 'divers tongues' 'as He wills'?
Language of angels would have vocabulary and contain meaning, so it would not be such as is typically seen on youtube and religious TV.
How much research time have you spent examining angelic utterances in non-human language. I can imagine variables languages could be inflected for....for meaning that human minds could not process. For example, if someone held what sounded like one note, but there were slight fluctuations in frequency that human minds and ears could not detect that conveyed meaning. Non-human languages would not have to be designed so that human minds, ears, etc. would be able to detect these types of variations. They would not have to follow the theoretical linguistic universals for human language, the parameters for what they call 'universal grammar' for example, or vocabulary, or phonetics, etc.
Btw, if you get some angels to sit down in a lab for you, let me know. I'd like to visit.
Do I have to write out the transliterations for you, in order to get you to see that it is nothing but random syllables?
Tell me which of these are transcriptions of speaking in tongues, without doing a Google or web search? if you replay, can you assure me you did not look these up?
1. Yamana kita, sia’-- ‘yamana ‘kita ,sia’naya,si
2. Huna mu minuna
3. Kuku kaki kakek ku kena paku
4. Harga warga
Which one(s) are 'tongues' and which are not?
Compare it with someone speaking a real language, and the difference becomes obvious. That is, if you are really looking for a difference. But of course, if you're not looking for a difference because you want typical P/C gibberish to be language, then you won't see a difference. That's called 'bias.'
It depends. Some utterances sound like they have structure of a human language some do not.
These things might happen during times of persecution. But it will be because it is done to them, not because they volunteered it or made it normative.
Some monastic types have given up all based on verses like this.
Luke 14:33
So likewise, whosoever he be of you that forsaketh not all that he hath, he cannot be my disciple.
Giving one's body to be burned-- that generally goes along with persecution. Stephen had been martyred by this time, and probably some other Christians also.
Are you trying to say that Paul meant it figuratively? If it is possible that Paul meant it figuratively, then why isn't tongues of angels also figurative? You cannot pick and choose some phrase literal and some phrase figurative, if you want any consistency in interpreting scripture. Paul wasn't talking about a metaphorical mountain.
I would not say that moving mountains could not be literal. But if someone guesses it might be some kind of idiom, where is the evidence for 'tongues of angels' being some kind of figure of speech. It shows up in the Testament of Job. Is there any evidence it was intended as a metaphor? No. The interpreter just has to guess and insist that is what it means. That is called eisegesis.
But you are taking the phrase in v. 1 out of context and forming it to your agenda (as is typical of P/C interpretation).
No, you are taking what verse 1 there says and insisting it does not mean what it directly says, to fit your agenda. I'm open to the possibility that an utterance in tongues
might be tongues of angels. Or insistence that Paul must mean it figuratively or as hyperbole..with no evidence to back it up... is not rational. If it were figurative, what would the phrase signify?
The next chapter is not a change of subject.
Huh? Tongues without interpretation is not addressed in verse 13.
And since they are hypothetical, he's not teaching that people were actually doing those things as a normal practice. But modern P/C tongues is considered angelic by many (if not most) P/Cs as normal practice. It's a misrepresentation of what Paul meant.
I really don't know what the majority belief is. A straw poll I saw on a forum should have of a small sample size thought it is either 'tongues of men or of angels' or 'tongues of men or of angels or something else'. A little more than half thought that. A smaller group thought 'a heavenly language.' That's probably a viewpoint that came to be more popular with Charismatics, maybe WOFers, whose doctrines tend to be less-well-thought-out on a lot of issues. Historically, Pentecostalism focused on human languages, and the many experiences of those who heard them from time to time at Azusa Street and on the mission field and elsewhere reinforced this.
Something being possible doesn't mean it's happening. Paul did not say it was happening, and nowhere in the Bible does it support the idea that any man ever spoke an angelic language.
Paul says, "Though' (or if) "I speak with the tongues of men and of angels..." If you are open minded to what the text says, you should be open minded to the idea that God might empower someone to speak with the tongues of angels. Functionally, it doesn't matter the way tongues operate in chapter 14 anyway. The audience is edified through the interpretation, not the ethnicity or species of the language speaker.
When angels conversed in the hearing of men, it was always in the language of the human hearer.
That is a really silly point since there are no cases in the Bible of angels conversing without a human hearer that are not written down in a way for human readers to understand. We don't get any scenes of angels doing anything at all in the Bible except cases where humans are seeing or perceiving what they are doing. Does that mean they do nothing or do not exist if prophets are not watching? Both are silly lines of reasoning.
I'm saying that all the tongues I have heard, and all that's on youtube, and all I've seen on religious TV is pseudo-language, and that 1 Cor. 13:1 cannot be used to justify calling it tongues of angels.
Please share your samples of angelic tongues against which you compared the samples of speaking in tongues to determine this. Just one sample, please. More if you have them.