No, my agreeing doesn't make him right; his being right makes him right. LOL
Biblical Mary!
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No, my agreeing doesn't make him right; his being right makes him right. LOL
Well, to each according to his belief. I know that the explanation he has given does not agree with the meaning the Roman Catholic attaches to Mary's immaculate conception. If his source is the Catholic official source, let him quote it; we can then discuss it further.
Remain blessed.
agreed Mary is the mother of the Christ the promised messiah who needed to be born of a woman to fulfill prophecy
“Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.”
Isaiah 7:14 KJV
“But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.”
Matthew 1:20
according to the flesh he had a mother but it would actually be eve because she is the mother of all the living. Christ had to be born so logistically to carry out Gods word of the messiahs virgin birth he had to choose a woman. I don’t think she’s any more Or less than o ten we believers just one who was chosen to fulfill gods purpose and will like Lazarus the living dead man to Paul the Pharisee turned Christian
Thanks for the link. I must confess it is too long and the English is too big for me to understand all . But it kind of confirmed my thoughts.
@Evmur said and I quote " if they suppose that Mary had to be immaculate in order to conceive Christ then all of Mary's line would of necessity stretching back to Adam have had to be immaculate". I do not think this has any bearing to what was explained in that link and this is the point I was stressing. Being sinless or not subject to original sin does not mean, to them, that her parents were sinless too. Her immaculateness began at conception through the sanctifying grace of God, through which the effect of the original sin was "removed" from her. So, she had no need of repentance or baptism they way we need.
I cannot really doubt or fault this because
1. nothing is impossible to God
2. God is holy. Therefore, I find it inconceivable that he will manifest himself through a sinful body. He prepared her in a unique way full of grace , for this unique purpose. I cannot remember who else in the scripture was testified to be full of grace
3.
You can make as many myths and fairy stories as you wish but we go by what the Holy Spirit has recorded for us in the scriptures ... the scripture makes no mention of such doctrines.
We have scriptures to prove that Christ was without sin.
Please tell me, as best as you understand, what is Mar's immaculate conception?
Jesus is God, Mary is human. Jesus the creator who create Mary.
Don't pray to Mary, she not going to heir your pray
Don't pray to Mary, she not going to heir your pray
Never depart from that TRUTH
Paul, an apostle (not from men nor through man, but through Jesus Christ and God the Father who raised Him from the dead), 2and all the brethren who are with me,
Grace to you and peace from God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ, who gave Himself for our sins, that He might deliver us from this present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father, to whom be glory forever and ever. Amen.
I marvel that you are turning away so soon from Him who called you in the grace of Christ, to a different gospel, which is not another; but there are some who trouble you and want to pervert the gospel of Christ.
But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed. As we have said before, so now I say again, if anyone preaches any other gospel to you than what you have received, let him be accursed.
Galatians ch1
"When I find myself in times of trouble,
Mother Mary comes to me,
Speaking words of wisdom, let it be."
Jesus is sinless, not Mary.
Jesus was the beginning, He was exist before Mary and who create mary
How sin Mary give birth to sinless Jesus
Everything is possible with God.
The fact Jesus sinless doesn't mean Mary sinless
Jesus was the beginning, He was exist before Mary and who create mary
How sin Mary give birth to sinless Jesus
Everything is possible with God.
The fact Jesus sinless doesn't mean Mary sinless
Myth? Fairy tale? I do not think we should call it that.
St John tells us that there were many things Jesus did/said which were not recorded in the scriptures. We are talking about things done more than 2000 years ago. I think people might have talked about these unwritten things for a long time or even written about them in other ways other than the scripture. And passed on through traditions or legends. Paul told his converts to hold fast the traditions (you might call it teachings) which they were taught whether by word of mouth or his epistles. It is very unlikely that everything Paul taught through the spoken word was recorded in the scripture. Some things would have been passed down the line via word of mouth too. Even in this madness of social media, so many things still circulate via word of mouth without entering the net, passed on from mouth to mouth, not to talk about then.
I do not think we should dismiss issues just because they are not written in the bible. The burden on us is to prove all spirits. ---is it in line with the truth of the scripture; is it in line with the nature of God etc. To me, in this case, the answer is yes because as I said before, it is unthinkable that God would manifest himself as man through a sinful body. Even we are made righteous so that the holy Spirit will dwell in us and walk in us to guide us to renew our mind day by day and quicken our mortal body. How can it be wrong to say that God made her pure right from the womb to shield her from the original sin because of her unique mission on earth? This is not out of God's character. He prepares his anointed ones for unique purposes in any way he deems fit. e.g. John the Baptist etc.
I believe it. I am not saying you or anyone else should believe it too But the least we can do is not to twist other people's doctrine or even the scripture in order to serve our purpose, though, I recognize that sometimes, we do this for lack of knowledge, out of the integrity of our heart in a bid to defend the gospel. Maybe, "to twist" is not the right word. Only God knows the heart. Provided we are persuaded in our heart that we are not saying things out of grudges, hatred, animosity or malignity, it is all good and well.
To digress a bit, I think that original sin is passed on by means of reproduction (sexual), hence, the need for her to be made pure right from the womb. This purity was preserved to conceive Jesus. Recall she conceived Jesus being a virgin, therefore, her purity was intact.
Jesus is the central figure in the gospel and not his mother, so, it is expected that revelation of his being would take the focal point of discussion/teaching and not his mother's.
Do you pray for others or request others to pray for you? if you do, why cant we request for prayers from her too? Even Paul always asked his converts to pray for him. At least we know, unlike us, she was testified to be full of grace and did intercede for people at the wedding at Cana and her request granted by her Son.
Everybody knows that the RCC view of sexual intercourse is warped. There is nothing in the sex act between husband and wife that would make anybody unclean.
God manifested Himself through the apostles by His Spirit. God spoke to Balaam through a donkey.
Are you sure your interpretation is right? I doubt.
When scripture says there is no one righteous not even a single person when we know that Abraham was noted to be righteous in same scripture. It behoves on us to understand what the scripture is really saying.
It said that there is not a just man on earth, does not say that there was or was not a just woman on earth. Still, it is common to use the word 'man' to not be totally exclusive to males but to include females as well.
First I must say that the opinion I expressed is my personal opinion and has nothing to do with RCC. Just for the records
It is permitted between husband and wife
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