The Falling Away - pre-trib rapture or ???

[FreeGrace2]

SO EASY TO JUST READ MY BIBLE AND MAKE YOU GO AGAINST THE WORD OF GOD

Let's read the Bible and see who goes against the Word of God.

Acts 24:15 - and I have the same hope in God as these men themselves have, that there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the wicked.

OK, do this verse shows a single (a) resurrection for the saved and the lost. Good to know.

1 Cor 15:23 - But each in turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him.

OK, the single resurrection of the saved means EVERYONE who "belongs to Him". That would include ALL believers in the Messiah from Adam on.

So, from these 2 verses, we know that every believer will be resurrected in a single event.

2 Thess 2:1-3
1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ (Second Advent) and our being gathered to him, (rapture) we ask you, brothers and sisters,
2 not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us—whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter—asserting that the day of the Lord has already come (Second Advent).
3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day (Second Advent) will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.

Rev 20-
4 I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. Theyhad not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life (resurrection of those who belong to Him) and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 (The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection (those who belong to Him).

These verses PROVE that ALL believers will be resurrected/raptured when Jesus returns at the Second Advent, which is AFTER the Tribulation.

To believe in a pre-trib resurrection/rapture is to reject all these verses here.

 

[FreeGrace2]

...and yet Jesus placed the wedding supper in heaven twice.

No He didn't. You just misunderstand what He said. The very wording in Rev 19 shows people GETTING READY FOR THE WEDDING SUPPER, immediately followed by accompanying Jesus to earth. Read it for yourself.

 

[stilllearning]

Rev 20-
4 I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. Theyhad not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life (resurrection of those who belong to Him) and reigned with Christ a thousand years.

I find this passage is rather specific. It reads the only ones who come back to life are those who lost their life for their testimony those who don't worship the beast, his image, or receive his mark. Find this passage specific and myself can't read anymore is being resurrected than what is stated. Of course I am ok with this being specific like it is cause those who were alive and remained were caught up with those who were dead prior. So the only ones who would need to be resurrected are those who afterwards died for their testimony as specified.

So I would have to disagree with the rendering of this verse.

 

[Absolutely]

No He didn't. You just misunderstand what He said. The very wording in Rev 19 shows people GETTING READY FOR THE WEDDING SUPPER, immediately followed by accompanying Jesus to earth. Read it for yourself.

Reread it

It happened in heaven as JESUS SAID IN THE LAST SUPPER DIALOGUE.

Combine those two references.

I dont need it to be on earth or heaven

The ones needing it on earth have a reason.

So they change those two references

SMH

 

[Absolutely]

I find this passage is rather specific. It reads the only ones who come back to life are those who lost their life for their testimony those who don't worship the beast, his image, or receive his mark. Find this passage specific and myself can't read anymore is being resurrected than what is stated. Of course I am ok with this being specific like it is cause those who were alive and remained were caught up with those who were dead prior. So the only ones who would need to be resurrected are those who afterwards died for their testimony as specified.

So I would have to disagree with the rendering of this verse.

He is using NIV.
Inthe greek it does NOT SAY "came to life"

Not at all.

Nothing to that effect.

It says they lived.....

NIV really skewed that verse badly.

Sad actually ,because there is no resurrection what so ever in rev 20

 

[Absolutely]

Let's read the Bible and see who goes against the Word of God.

Acts 24:15 - and I have the same hope in God as these men themselves have, that there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the wicked.

OK, do this verse shows a single (a) resurrection for the saved and the lost. Good to know.

1 Cor 15:23 - But each in turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him.

OK, the single resurrection of the saved means EVERYONE who "belongs to Him". That would include ALL believers in the Messiah from Adam on.

So, from these 2 verses, we know that every believer will be resurrected in a single event.

2 Thess 2:1-3
1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ (Second Advent) and our being gathered to him, (rapture) we ask you, brothers and sisters,
2 not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us—whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter—asserting that the day of the Lord has already come (Second Advent).
3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day (Second Advent) will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.

Rev 20-
4 I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. Theyhad not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life (resurrection of those who belong to Him) and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 (The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection (those who belong to Him).

These verses PROVE that ALL believers will be resurrected/raptured when Jesus returns at the Second Advent, which is AFTER the Tribulation.

To believe in a pre-trib resurrection/rapture is to reject all these verses here.

You skewed rev 20 and the other verses.
Rev 20 SAYS THE OPPOSITE IN THE GREEK from the skewed bible you are using.

Yes lets go with the word.

Nothing in those verses in 1 corinthians or 2 thes support what you are trying to make them say.

Those verses say exactly what they say.

But your rev 20 does not. It is ridiculous how niv skewed it and missed the barn completely.

 

[Absolutely]

Who separates tribulation from His wrath?

God does in His word -
These things I have spoken to you, that in Me you may have peace. In the world you will have tribulation; but be of good cheer, I have overcome the world.” John 16:33

And when they had preached the gospel to that city and made many disciples, they returned to Lystra, Iconium, and Antioch, strengthening the souls of the disciples, exhorting them to continue in the faith, and saying,
“We must through many tribulations enter the kingdom of God. Acts 14: 21-22

and to wait for His Son from heaven, whom He raised from the dead, even Jesus who delivers us from the wrath to come.

Do not add (or take away) from God's words less he rebuke you and you be found a liar - Proverbs 30: 5-6

You do not want to change Scripture - very bad and comes from pride.

yes we all see that.
Wrath in high gear in the last part of the gt.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

I find this passage is rather specific. It reads the only ones who come back to life are those who lost their life for their testimony those who don't worship the beast, his image, or receive his mark. Find this passage specific and myself can't read anymore is being resurrected than what is stated. Of course I am ok with this being specific like it is cause those who were alive and remained were caught up with those who were dead prior. So the only ones who would need to be resurrected are those who afterwards died for their testimony as specified.

That's how I read 20:4b also.


[same G2198 word as was used re: Jesus in Rev2:8 (after His having "become DEAD"... "and He LIVED [G2198]") - https://biblehub.com/text/revelation/2-8.htm ]


Rev20:4b speaks specifically of those killed / martyred / beheaded IN THE SECOND HALF of the 7 yrs (the LAST to have been killed, prior to the commencing of the MK age, for which they will be "resurrected" to enjoy and participate in that [aka "the wedding feast / supper" / the "meal [G347]"]... and to "reign with Him" for 1000 yrs).

 

[Absolutely]

That's how I read 20:4b also.


[same G2198 word as was used re: Jesus in Rev2:8 (after His having "become DEAD"... "and He LIVED [G2198]") - https://biblehub.com/text/revelation/2-8.htm ]


Rev20:4b speaks specifically of those killed / martyred / beheaded IN THE SECOND HALF of the 7 yrs (the LAST to have been killed, prior to the commencing of the MK age, for which they will be "resurrected" to enjoy and participate in that [aka "the wedding feast / supper" / the "meal [G347]"]... and to "reign with Him" for 1000 yrs).

Jesus places the supper in heaven in the passover last supper dialoge

 

[DavidTree]

yes we all see that.
Wrath in high gear in the last part of the gt.

i want to give you a gift, in the form of a clue, from HS7 = the Lord's ministry was 3.5 years from start to completion.

 

[Runningman]

I find this passage is rather specific. It reads the only ones who come back to life are those who lost their life for their testimony those who don't worship the beast, his image, or receive his mark. Find this passage specific and myself can't read anymore is being resurrected than what is stated. Of course I am ok with this being specific like it is cause those who were alive and remained were caught up with those who were dead prior. So the only ones who would need to be resurrected are those who afterwards died for their testimony as specified.

So I would have to disagree with the rendering of this verse.

The way it reads to me is that the first resurrection occurs just before the rapture:

1 Thess. 4:16-17
16For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: 17Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

The first resurrection contains martyred saints from the great tribulation:

Revelation 20:4-6
4And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. 5But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection. 6Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

That would place the first resurrection and rapture post-great tribulation. If we really want to split hairs about Revelation 20:4-6, the bit that says "the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished" in Revelation 20:5, then that could potentially split the first resurrection into two parts: first part is for martyred great tribulation saints and the second part is for everyone else. In theory, it's possible to say the first resurrection occurs once before and again after the Millennial Kingdom.

 

[DavidTree]

I find this passage is rather specific. It reads the only ones who come back to life are those who lost their life for their testimony those who don't worship the beast, his image, or receive his mark. Find this passage specific and myself can't read anymore is being resurrected than what is stated. Of course I am ok with this being specific like it is cause those who were alive and remained were caught up with those who were dead prior. So the only ones who would need to be resurrected are those who afterwards died for their testimony as specified.

So I would have to disagree with the rendering of this verse.

You must ask the Spirit in the presence of the LORD - Why was HE specific about making 100% clear to us - "those who had not received/worshipped the Beast and lost their life or their testimony" in Rev 20

Clues: Daniel ch7 & ch12 , 1 Thess 4:13-18 , John 3:16-21

 

[FreeGrace2]

I find this passage is rather specific. It reads the only ones who come back to life are those who lost their life for their testimony those who don't worship the beast, his image, or receive his mark. Find this passage specific and myself can't read anymore is being resurrected than what is stated. Of course I am ok with this being specific like it is cause those who were alive and remained were caught up with those who were dead prior. So the only ones who would need to be resurrected are those who afterwards died for their testimony as specified.

So I would have to disagree with the rendering of this verse.

It appears you didn't read the other verses I posted before I got to Rev 20.

In acts 24:15 Paul speaks of a SINGLE resurrection for the saved and lost. Rev 20 specifically mentions the FIRST resurrection involves the martyrs from the Trib.

In 1 Cor 15:23, Paul's subject in that chapter is the resurrection of believers. In v.23 Paul notes that Jesus is the "firstfruits", meaning the first human to receive a resurrection body. Then Paul adds, "when He comes" an obvious reference to the Second Advent, when Jesus returns to earth to end the Tribulation and set up His Millennial kingdom, and then "those who belong to Him".

So, who do you suppose "those" are, if not EVERY believer from Adam on?

Can you legitimately exclude any believer from any period of human history from "those who belong to Him"? I think not.

But, if you can, please provide the verses that support it.

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
No He didn't. You just misunderstand what He said. The very wording in Rev 19 shows people GETTING READY FOR THE WEDDING SUPPER, immediately followed by accompanying Jesus to earth. Read it for yourself.

Reread it

After you.

It happened in heaven as JESUS SAID IN THE LAST SUPPER DIALOGUE.

Why don't you actually quote verses rather than just make "reference" to them?

Combine those two references.

Can't until I know what you are even referring to.

I dont need it to be on earth or heaven

And I don't "need" anything either. All I need are clear verses that actually SAY the truth. Like 2 Thess 2:1-3 that says the "gathering" or 'rapture' will occur at the Second Advent. Clear as crystal.

But, to PROVE what Rev 19 says, let's review it once again.

7 Let us rejoice and be glad and give him glory! For the wedding of the Lamb has come, and his bride has made herself ready.
8 Fine linen, bright and clean, was given her to wear.” (Fine linen stands for the righteous acts of God’s holy people.)
9 Then the angel said to me, “Write this: Blessed are those who are invited to the wedding supper of the Lamb!” And he added, “These are the true words of God.”

Since Rev 19 follows this text with an IMMEDIATE description of these wedding attenders accompanying Jesus to earth IN THE SAME WEDDING ATTIRE (fine linen - v.8 and v.14), it is clear the "army of heaven" is dressed for the wedding but accompanies Jesus to earth for the wedding.

Notice closely what is actually said in v.7-9.

v.7 - the wedding HAS COME. If the wedding occurred 7 years earlier, before the Tribulation, John would have written "CAME" instead of "has come", which clearly indicates it is AT HAND, rather than has already occurred.

v.8 - the attendees wear "fine linen", the same description in v.14 of the armies accompanying Jesus to earth. You want to believe this wedding supper lasts for the entire Tribulation?

v.9 If the wedding supper had already occurred, the wording of the verse is weird.

Why would John say "ARE invited" if it had already occurred? Of course, you will have no answer and so will ignore my question.

But, to the readers of this thread whose eyes and ears are OPEN to truth, they will be challenged to answer the question.

John wrote in the sense of what's coming. If he thought the wedding supper had already occurred, he would have written "blessed are those who WERE invited" not "ARE invited". Words mean things. And you cannot explain John's use of words with your notion of when things occ

The ones needing it on earth have a reason.

Again, I don't "need" a thing. However, from the wording in Rev 19, and combining Acts 24:15 and 1 Cor 24:23 with Rev 20, it is clear that there will be ONLY 1 resurrection and it will occur "when He comes". So IF it will occur before the Tribulation, Rev 20 is DESTROYED. Because Trib martyrs are resurrected AFTER the Tribulation. So the resurrection cannot occur before the Trib.

So they change those two references

I've changed nothing.

But, show me what you think I have changed. I cannot imagine.

Oh, and btw, please answer my question about why John wrote "ARE invited" in v.9 if it had already occurred 7 years prior.

 

[FreeGrace2]

He is using NIV.
Inthe greek it does NOT SAY "came to life"

Not at all.

Nothing to that effect.

It says they lived.....

NIV really skewed that verse badly.

Sad actually ,because there is no resurrection what so ever in rev 20

This is just hilarious.

Just playing more word games.

The text is about martyrs from the Tribulation. That means they physically died. Duh.

Then the text says these martyrs "came to life". What else would that mean other than "were resurrected"?

And from Acts 24:15 and 1 Cor 15:23, we know there will be just ONE resurrection of the saved.

And Rev 20 even calls the "came to life" martyrs the "first resurrection".

Please go to biblehub.com and put in Rev 20:5 and click on "interlinear". You'll see what it says all right.

 

[FreeGrace2]

You skewed rev 20 and the other verses.

Prove it then. What "other verses"?

Rev 20 SAYS THE OPPOSITE IN THE GREEK from the skewed bible you are using.

Go to biblehub.com and click on "interlinear".

Yes lets go with the word.

Please do.

Nothing in those verses in 1 corinthians or 2 thes support what you are trying to make them say.

I don't have to "try" anything. The verse are clear in themselves. But one has to actually read them to know that.

Acts 24:15 describes A resurrection. Are you familiar with singular vs plural items? When Paul A resurrection of the saved and unsaved, he clearly meant one each. But I suppose you think something else. Prove it.

Those verses say exactly what they say.

I know that. That's exactly WHY I quoted them.

But your rev 20 does not. It is ridiculous how niv skewed it and missed the barn completely.

Go to biblehub.com and see for yourself what it says in the interlinear.

You can leave the NIV out of this.

 

[ewq1938]

In acts 24:15 Paul speaks of a SINGLE resurrection for the saved and lost.

False. Scripture always speaks of two resurrections. One for saved, and a second one for unsaved.


Rev 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Rev 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
Rev 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

The first resurrection is the resurrection of this first group of the dead because they resurrect first. The rest of the dead have to wait for their resurrection:

"the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished" (Rev 20:5)

This is the last resurrection of those who are dead. One group resurrected and "the rest" or the remaining ones did not resurrect when the others did.

This proves they partake of the second resurrection also known as the last resurrection because no one is still physically dead after they "live again". This also proves without a doubt that there are two separate days of resurrection separated by a thousand years and how long that actually is doesn't matter.

Part of the dead resurrect and then "the rest of the dead" will resurrect after a period of time. That's the dead resurrecting in two parts separated by a period of time.


The first group resurrects before the thousand years begins and the second/last group resurrects after the end of the thousand years.




Dan 12:2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.

First group resurrection: "to everlasting life"
Second group resurrection: "to shame and everlasting contempt"


Joh 5:29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

First group resurrection: "resurrection of life"
Second group resurrection: "the resurrection of damnation"



What we learn from both verses is that there are two resurrections. One resurrection is to life and the other resurrection is to damnation and contempt. Two resurrections! Never is there a single resurrection of both righteous and unrighteous at the same time.



We also see here that the saved/righteous are resurrected first, and at some time later the unsaved are resurrected and judged.

What these verses do not tell us is how much time is inbetween the two. For that we have to go to Revelation 20 where Christ tells John there is a thousand years inbetween. "the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished". There we have the dead separated into two groups. One who are saved and will be resurrected and judged first, like Dan 12:2 and Joh 5:29 show, and the other group that has to wait until the thousand years are finished before they are resurrected and judged.

Act 24:15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust.

Based on the other scriptures that speak of two resurrections we know Luke is not saying the just and unjust resurrect at the same time but just that both groups will experience a resurrection.

 

[DavidTree]

This is just hilarious.

Just playing more word games.

The text is about martyrs from the Tribulation. That means they physically died. Duh.

Then the text says these martyrs "came to life". What else would that mean other than "were resurrected"?

And from Acts 24:15 and 1 Cor 15:23, we know there will be just ONE resurrection of the saved.

And Rev 20 even calls the "came to life" martyrs the "first resurrection".

Please go to biblehub.com and put in Rev 20:5 and click on "interlinear". You'll see what it says all right.

They love word games including changing scripture to fit the need they desire.

Scripture is off-limits to our incursion.

God is waiting until the time HE alone has prepared and it will not change Scripture - AMEN

 

[DavidTree]

False. Scripture always speaks of two resurrections. One for saved, and a second one for unsaved.


Rev 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Rev 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
Rev 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

The first resurrection is the resurrection of this first group of the dead because they resurrect first. The rest of the dead have to wait for their resurrection:

"the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished" (Rev 20:5)

This is the last resurrection of those who are dead. One group resurrected and "the rest" or the remaining ones did not resurrect when the others did.

This proves they partake of the second resurrection also known as the last resurrection because no one is still physically dead after they "live again". This also proves without a doubt that there are two separate days of resurrection separated by a thousand years and how long that actually is doesn't matter.

Part of the dead resurrect and then "the rest of the dead" will resurrect after a period of time. That's the dead resurrecting in two parts separated by a period of time.


The first group resurrects before the thousand years begins and the second/last group resurrects after the end of the thousand years.




Dan 12:2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.

First group resurrection: "to everlasting life"
Second group resurrection: "to shame and everlasting contempt"


Joh 5:29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

First group resurrection: "resurrection of life"
Second group resurrection: "the resurrection of damnation"



What we learn from both verses is that there are two resurrections. One resurrection is to life and the other resurrection is to damnation and contempt. Two resurrections! Never is there a single resurrection of both righteous and unrighteous at the same time.



We also see here that the saved/righteous are resurrected first, and at some time later the unsaved are resurrected and judged.

What these verses do not tell us is how much time is inbetween the two. For that we have to go to Revelation 20 where Christ tells John there is a thousand years inbetween. "the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished". There we have the dead separated into two groups. One who are saved and will be resurrected and judged first, like Dan 12:2 and Joh 5:29 show, and the other group that has to wait until the thousand years are finished before they are resurrected and judged.

Act 24:15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust.

Based on the other scriptures that speak of two resurrections we know Luke is not saying the just and unjust resurrect at the same time but just that both groups will experience a resurrection.

i'm in the First Group, can i count you in as well - Amen

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
In acts 24:15 Paul speaks of a SINGLE resurrection for the saved and lost.

False. Scripture always speaks of two resurrections. One for saved, and a second one for unsaved.

Oops. Sometimes my brain runs way ahead of my fingers. I meant a single resurrection for the saved and a single resurrection for the lost. I see why you reacted.

Rev 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Rev 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
Rev 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

The first resurrection is the resurrection of this first group of the dead because they resurrect first. The rest of the dead have to wait for their resurrection:

"the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished" (Rev 20:5)

This is the last resurrection of those who are dead. One group resurrected and "the rest" or the remaining ones did not resurrect when the others did.

This proves they partake of the second resurrection also known as the last resurrection because no one is still physically dead after they "live again". This also proves without a doubt that there are two separate days of resurrection separated by a thousand years and how long that actually is doesn't matter.

Part of the dead resurrect and then "the rest of the dead" will resurrect after a period of time. That's the dead resurrecting in two parts separated by a period of time.

The first group resurrects before the thousand years begins and the second/last group resurrects after the end of the thousand years.

Dan 12:2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.

First group resurrection: "to everlasting life"
Second group resurrection: "to shame and everlasting contempt"

Joh 5:29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

First group resurrection: "resurrection of life"
Second group resurrection: "the resurrection of damnation"


What we learn from both verses is that there are two resurrections. One resurrection is to life and the other resurrection is to damnation and contempt. Two resurrections! Never is there a single resurrection of both righteous and unrighteous at the same time.


We also see here that the saved/righteous are resurrected first, and at some time later the unsaved are resurrected and judged.

What these verses do not tell us is how much time is inbetween the two. For that we have to go to Revelation 20 where Christ tells John there is a thousand years inbetween. "the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished". There we have the dead separated into two groups. One who are saved and will be resurrected and judged first, like Dan 12:2 and Joh 5:29 show, and the other group that has to wait until the thousand years are finished before they are resurrected and judged.

Act 24:15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust.

Based on the other scriptures that speak of two resurrections we know Luke is not saying the just and unjust resurrect at the same time but just that both groups will experience a resurrection.

Thanks for Dan 12:2. A great companion verse with Acts 24:15!