Here is your first question:
"If the point of the law is to show me I am not sinless, then isn't the law requiring things of me that I can't provide?"
Of course. To SHOW you that you can't comply. That's what I already explained.
then you agree with me, and you don't need me to laboriously search and recite a list of verses, because you are a sufficiently adept student of scripture already.
Here is your second question:
"Why is the law full of atoning sacrifices? Isn't it because they are clearly necessary owing to my inability to be sinless?"
The "atoning sacrifices" were only a shadow of what Christ would do. Apparently you are rather unfamiliar with Hebrews 7-10. I recommend that you read those chapters so you can understand the difference between the OT sacrifices and Christ's ONLY sacrifice.
as wise and knowledgeable as you evidently are, you still didn't quite give an adequate answer here. yet in a way, also, you did. =]
if God expected everyone to obey the law, He would not have given any law concerning atonement for sin.
if God expected everyone to *eventually mature* and become sinless, He would not have given Yom Kippur as an everlasting feast for the atonement of the sin of the nation.
these things point to Christ, who does what we cannot do - fulfill the holiness required by the law.
as you said, the purpose of the law is to demonstrate to Israel their inability to comply with the law. the sabbath, for example, is explicitly said in two witnesses to be given as a sign for Israel, with the express purpose to teach them that it is the LORD that sanctifies them. i.e. not them who sanctify themselves. He proved this to them before the law was ever given, in Exodus 16, with the giving of manna and sabbath, as a test -- a test they failed. and so they were given the law that they were given, with its blessing and its curse.
so you agree -- as you say -- that a law was given which could not be kept: the purpose of God being to demonstrate that righteousness is not by works. here's the scripture you demanded of me: Galatians 2:21. it doesn't matter what version you read it in ((well OK don't read 'the message' or somesuch nonsense as that lol)).
seeing that you are in agreement with me & Jerry that God did indeed give commands that could not be kept, that He indeed purposefully did so in order to teach us our need for His mercy, in order to bring us to Christ, Jerry & i eagerly await your apology and confession that God may indeed command things He knows we cannot attain to; that He does so in order to teach us something, to wit: our need for Him. a need for a sacrifice that doesn't need to keep being repeated yearly ad nauseum. OK well mostly Jerry awaits your apology & confession ((scanning the thread)): you and he have been fussing at each other a long time before your fussing accidentally spilled over onto me.
Christ is the fulfillment of the law. nothing else can be the fulfillment of the law. that's why the law was given, and why it is a schoolmaster leading us to Christ, who is God, who has mercy on whom He will, by grace through faith.
o and btw while i have your attention, what did you think about my first comment in this thread?
if human free-will is sovereign, how do you explain praying for the salvation of others?
or do you not pray that God will save someone who is lost?
and also btw, i'm pretty sure you're arguing against hypercalvinism, not calvinism. it's useful to learn the difference, and you'll have a lot easier time gaining the respect of people when you don't automatically accuse everyone who agrees with reforemed theology of being hypercalvinists.
obviously we have free will. obviously that free will is limited, not absolute. obviously salvation isn't by the desire, will or effort of man, but God who has mercy. if we could save ourselves through sheer determination & willpower, Christ died for nothing.
meanwhile, there are 25 pages of this thread i still haven't read. so i have some catching up to do; i trust you will bear with me.
=]