Why Daniel's 70th week must be in the future
- Thread starter Nehemiah6
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Tell me - do you believe that anyone living during the millennium will commit sin?
one sin
any sin
?
Keep in mind that the Dan9:24-27 prophecy is concerning "upon THY [Daniel's] people, and upon THY [Daniel's] holy city"
[Rom11:27 / Isa27:9,12-13 , etc...]
Which is false!
The prophecy was given in Daniel 9:27 and was quoted by the Lord in Matt.24:15, which means that this event had not yet taken place and was yet future. Then you have no fulfillment of the characteristics of those events mentioned in between the time that Jesus quoted Daniel up to the destruction of the temple. Since all scriptures must be fulfilled, then there must be a future temple, sacrifices and a setting up of an abomination.
Those events regarding the abomination of desolation is speaking a future fleeing from Jerusalem and Judea, which is mentioned in both Matt.24:15-22 and Revelation 12:6, 14. In the middle of the seven years, after the dragon/Satan and his angels are finally cast out of heaven, the dragon/Satan will pursue the woman/Israel, who will flee out into the wilderness where she will be cared for 1260 days, which is that last 3 1/2 years of that seven year period mentioned in Daniel 9:27. It is at the beginning of that last 3 1/2 years when the anichrist/beast/man of lawlessness, will set up that abomination which is what causes Israel to flee out into the wilderness. At the end of that 3 1/2 years is when the Lord returns to the earth to end the age and establish His millennial kingdom. This is another reason why Daniel 9:27 could not have already have taken place, because the seven years ends with Christ returning to the earth to end the age and regardless of what the Amills believe, that has not yet happened.
Totally incorrect!
The KJV was translated directly from the Hebrew/Aramaic (OT) and the [Koine] Greek (NT).
No latin. No Septuagint.
Christ Prophesied Daniel before his Death around 33 A.D.
70 A.D. is the FUTURE when Christ Prophesied!
People also ask
Did the King James translators use the Septuagint?
The KJV translators consulted original language printed texts for OT and NT; older English translations including Tyndale, Coverdale, Great, Geneva, Rheims, and the Latin Vulgate; as well as a version of the Septuagint for the Apocryphal books and many sections of the Old Testament.
^
NOTICE:
No mention of Hebrew but it claims it used Latin Vulgate and Septuagint!
Was the KJV translated from the Latin Vulgate?
Did the Latin Vulgate have influence on the KJV? Yes. The Geneva Bible was translated only from Hebrew OT and Greek NT in 1560
^
NOTICE:
Only Bible mentioned to use Hebrew is the Geneva Bible for its Old Testament!
Did the Latin Vulgate have influence on the KJV? Yes. The Geneva Bible was translated only from Hebrew OT and Greek NT in 1560
^
NOTICE:
Only Bible mentioned to use Hebrew is the Geneva Bible for its Old Testament!
God is going to deal with the unbelieving nation of Israel during the tribulation period as the fulfillment of that last seven years. During that last 3 1/2 years is when the antichrist will sit in the temple proclaiming himself to be God. So No! The times of the Gentiles is not over with!
If you believe that these things have already taken place, then When did the two witnesses bring plagues upon the earth for 3 1/2 years and were killed with their bodies left in the streets of Jerusalem and then resurrecting and ascending up into heaven after 3 1/2 days? When did this happen? The time of their prophecy takes place during the first 3 1/2 years of that seven year period. When did that happen? The answer is that it hasn't happened and it is a part of the events which take place during that seven years.
It also states that the beast will be given power over the saints on the earth during the great tribulation period to make war and conquer them. When did that happen? The answer is that it hasn't happened yet and is therefore still future.
The King James Translators had access to everything listed, and then some. The Septuagint is a corrupted form of the Old Testament so even though they had access to it , it made no difference. They went directly to Jacob ben Chayyim's printed Great Rabbinic Bible( Mikra'ot Gedolot) based on the Masoretic Text.
No it wouldn't. That is exactly what happened in 167 B.C.
AoD in Daniel 11 & 12 - not in 9.
But Jesus (in His Olivet Discourse) prophesied about both "near-future" [70ad] AND "far-future" [7-yr Trib & His "RETURN" to the earth] events, see (and NOT as "double-fulfillment" but AS DISTINCT!)
True! However, you have no fulfillment of the events mentioned by Daniel and quoted by Jesus. There was no seven year covenant made with Israel and no abomination was set up. And since Jesus returns to the earth to end the age at the end of that seven years, then this is another reason why those events have not yet take place. I hope you're not going to tell me that Jesus has already returned to end the age when the temple was destroyed! All of these events must take place in order to have fulfillment, yet none of those events have been fulfilled.
All of these events and more will take place after the church has been gathered during the seven year period which follows.
Yes, but Dan11 is the A4E one (past, to us); the Dan12:11 is the far-future one, with the "DAYS" referred to in that verse ASSOCIATED with Daniel being told he WILL [FUTURE] "stand in thy lot" at the END of the "DAYS" being referred to!
(that did NOT happen in 167bc, see )
No - the D12 mention is a reference to the D11 mention.Yes, but Dan11 is the A4E one (past, to us); the Dan12:11 is the far-future one, with the "DAYS" referred to in that verse ASSOCIATED with Daniel being told he WILL [FUTURE] "stand in thy lot" at the END of the "DAYS" being referred to!
Only one AoD, according to prophecy.
Yes, but Dan11 is the A4E one (past, to us); the Dan12:11 is the far-future one, with the "DAYS" referred to in that verse ASSOCIATED with Daniel being told he WILL [FUTURE] "stand in thy lot" at the END of the "DAYS" being referred to!
Agreed! Daniel 11 is in reference to the 2,300 days when Antiochus IV Epiphanes defiled the temple in 164 BC. While Daniel 9:27 is referring to the future event of the antichrist setting up an abomination in the holy place of the future temple.
E
eternally-gratefull
Guest
yeah, end of transgression (sins) does not mean hat it says it does
come back tome when you learn to read with an open mind.
E
eternally-gratefull
Guest
Context my friend context
daniel was praying about the sin f his people the sin that caused their punishment
it is THAT sin he is talking about,
Well, here ya go then:
"Seventy weeks (of years) are decreed for your people (Israel) and your holy city (Jerusalem) to stop their transgression, to put an end to sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy, and to anoint the Most Holy Place."
Yes, furthermore to put an end to THE sin of rejecting their Messiah, which the entire nation will do at the yet future 70th week GT period per.....
Matt 23:37-39
Zech 12:10-14
Hos 5:15, 6:1,2
Somebody tell AandW (he is on ignore) that the entire nation Israel did not receive their Messiah Jesus at 70 A.D. Somebody tell GaryA too. And Dino.