Yep
and the 70 weeks have yet to end, Christ has not yet returned, hence prophecy is still to be completed
Where do you understand Christ (going and) returning in the Prophecy EG?
Yep
and the 70 weeks have yet to end, Christ has not yet returned, hence prophecy is still to be completed
Of course the other problem with the antichrist rejection of Daniel's 70 weeks is that the prophecy is sealed at the end of 70 weeks, not at the end of 69 weeks.
'70 weeks are determined ...............to seal up..............the prophecy'
God has ordered that the prophecy cannot be understood until 70 weeks have elapsed.
Therefore the error of the 69 week camp is egregious in the extreme.
God sealed the prophecy for this very purpose.
It is technically impossible to posit an explanation of 69 weeks if the entire 70 weeks have not elapsed.
Another consideration:
[taken from BibleHub... under Commentaries... quoting excerpt]
"and to seal vision and prophet] i.e. to set the seal to them, to ratify and confirm the prophets’ predictions, the figure (cf. John 3:33; John 6:27) being derived from the custom of affixing a seal to a document, in order to guarantee its genuineness (Jeremiah 32:10-11; Jeremiah 32:44). The close of the 70 weeks will bring with it the confirmation of the prophetic utterances (such as those just quoted) respecting a blissful future.
"A.V., R.V., ‘seal up,’ means to close up, preclude from activity, the sense of the expression, upon this view, being supposed to be that, prophecies being fulfilled, prophet and vision will be needed no more."
--Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges - https://biblehub.com/commentaries/daniel/9-24.htm
[end quoting]
__________
I'm not sure... but I do not see the definite article ('the') with "prophecy" in v.24... as you have it ^
https://biblehub.com/text/daniel/9-24.htm
[this is why I see the explanation I quoted making more sense than what you've stated]
But its not a messianic prophecy, thats the issue, To claim it is a messianic only is to take it out of context.Yes. I agree EG.
It is indeed a prophecy to Israel.
Perhaps it would have been more accurate to say:
The most important thing is that it is A Messianic Prophecy to Israel
[...] how a Messianic Prophecy like Daniel 9 - obviously all
now fulfilled and all amply explained by Paul in Hebrews [...]
He came and was cut off (killed) after the 69th week (As the prophet said, he will come on a donkey)Where do you understand Christ (going and) returning in the Prophecy EG?
He came and was cut off (killed) after the 69th week (As the prophet said, he will come on a donkey)
when he was killed only 69 weeks had been completed. There was no 70 weeks.
We have to go to other prophesies and his own words to determine when he returns. In jesus own words. He will return because if he did not no flesh would survive. this would be the end of the great tribulation period. or the second half of the final week. or as Gabriel puts it. the end of the consummation which is poured out on the desolate.
Dan 9: Even until the consummation, which is determined, Is poured out on the desolate.”
For all your research, you overlooked my key point: that the transgression of Israel is complete.Actually it does,
Dan 9 starts of with Daniel confessing the sins of him and the people, and acknowledging that the reason they are here is because of their transgressions according to the law of Moses (Lev 26) his prayer being FOR his people, his holy city etc..
Open shame belongs to us, O Lord, to our kings, our princes and our fathers, because we have sinned against You. 9 To the Lord our God belong compassion and forgiveness, [d]for we have rebelled against Him; 10 nor have we obeyed the voice of the Lord our God, to walk in His teachings which He set before us through His servants the prophets. 11 Indeed all Israel has transgressed Your law and turned aside, not obeying Your voice; so the curse has been poured out on us, along with the oath which is written in the law of Moses the servant of God, for we have sinned against Him.
O Lord, hear! O Lord, forgive! O Lord, listen and take action! For Your own sake, O my God, do not delay, because Your city and Your people are called by Your name.”
then as Gabriel gives his answer, he mentions exactly what Daniel is praying about.
24, Seventy [t]weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression,
your people, to finish the transgression
daniel prayeyed for his people who were and continued to transgress all the way to 70 ad and continue today,
Gabriels answer was that 70 weeks were determined for his people, to finish that transgression.
they are still in sin, to much prophecy states when the messiah comes Israel will repent and finished THEIR transgression, and sin no more to ignore the fact that this is not only talking of them, we have words which say it will come true
As for “to restrain” in the NIV
please note that klh is the root used in Dan 9
1. Hebr. does not make a sharp morphological distinction between klh “to cease” and klʾ “to hold back,” as the numerous assimilations in inflection indicate (BL 375, 424; KBL 436a). Both roots occur in Ug. (WUS no. 1311: kla “to close”; no. 1317: kly “to be at an end”); Akk. kalû, which also combines the meaning “to cease” with the basic meaning “to hold back,” should probably be treated as *klʾ (GAG §105c; AHw 428f.). Like Akk., Aram. also knows only the (common Sem.) root klʾ, in the senses “to hold back” and “to come to an end.” In Neo-Pun., klh pi. is not attested with certainty (KAI no. 145.11; DISO 121).
A glance at the semantic spheres of the two verbs indicates that they are closely related semasiologically. There seems to be an elemental semasiological process wherein the notion of “limiting” and “ending” develops from the basic meaning of “holding back” and “blocking off”; cf. Ger. “schliessen” and Lat. “claudere” with the same characteristic double meaning “to enclose” and “to close off.” A corresponding semasiological process lies behind the antonym → ḥll hi.: “to unloose, release” > “to begin”; cf. e.g., Eng. “to open” and Lat. “aperire” for the beginning of talks.
The relationship between the two verbs in Hebr. also receives its simplest explanation through the assumption that “to cease” developed secondarily from the local, more original “to hold back,” and that the expansion in meaning resulted in a corresponding, although not always strictly executed, morphological division of the roots.
and no matter which way we want to use it, it still concerns his people. Not you or I. in 70 Ad. Isreal was defeated according to Lev 26,
lev 26: 27 ‘Yet if in spite of this you do not obey Me, but act with hostility against Me, 28 then I will act with wrathful hostility against you, and I, even I, will punish you seven times for your sins. 29 Further, you will eat the flesh of your sons and the flesh of your daughters you will eat. 30 I then will destroy your high places, and cut down your incense altars, and heap your [h]remains on the [i]remains of your idols, for My soul shall abhor you. 31 I will [j]lay waste your cities as well and will make your sanctuaries desolate, and I will not smell your soothing aromas. 32 I will make the land desolate so that your enemies who settle in it will be appalled over it. 33 You, however, I will scatter among the nations and will draw out a sword after you, as your land becomes desolate and your cities become waste.
It’s all about davids people and holy city, it was laced waste after the messiah was cut off, and the people were scattered all around the Roman Empire, just as promised,
1. if its not jesus who is it?Firstly 'the anointed one' is not necessarily Jesus.
Secondly, even if it were, nowhere does it say that he will 'return' or (some equivalent) to close out the prophecy.
In fact the whole business of anointing is pretty crucial to the prophecy.
It is?For all your research, you overlooked my key point: that the transgression of Israel is complete.![]()
1. if its not jesus who is it?
2. History shows Jesus came exactly in the time from given.
3. He was cut off immediately after this (hung on a cross)
4. What other anointed one or messiah would david be thinking of?
5. In the passage your correct. In other scripture adding prophecy up. It does.
Yours is one way to view it, but not the only way. Remember, the Pharisees had very specific ways of interpreting the messianic prophecies, yet when the Messiah came along, He did not fit their preconceived ideas, and they didn't recognize Him. To me, the futurist approach to Daniel 9 suffers from exactly the same error.It is?
then why are they not living in the land? Why did the land get destroyed according to lev 26? Why are they still in sin?
I read your post. I just can not agree with it.
Remember, we must look at all prophecy
The below has not yet happened?
ez 37:
21 “Then say to them, ‘Thus says the Lord God: “Surely I will take the children of Israel from among the nations, wherever they have gone, and will gather them from every side and bring them into their own land; 22 and I will make them one nation in the land, on the mountains of Israel; and one king shall be king over them all; they shall no longer be two nations, nor shall they ever be divided into two kingdoms again. 23 They shall not defile themselves anymore with their idols, nor with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions; but I will deliver them from all their dwelling places in which they have sinned, and will cleanse them. Then they shall be My people, and I will be their God.
This is when Israel will make a complete end of her transgressions.
One of the key prophecies in the Bible is that of the 70 "weeks" in the book of Daniel. There are certain denominations and/or individuals who teach that the 70 weeks of Daniel (as prophesied by Gabriel) have already been fulfilled. But even a cursory reading of Daniel 9:24 will show that that is impossible. Here is what is stated in the King James Bible:
Seventy weeks are determined
[A] upon thy people (the Jews) and
upon thy holy city (Jerusalem):
[1] to finish the transgression, and
[2] to make an end of sins, and
[3] to make reconciliation for iniquity, and
[4] to bring in everlasting righteousness, and
[5] to seal up the vision and prophecy, and
[6] to anoint the most Holy.
The first question we must ask is this: "Has everlasting righteousness been established in (a) Jerusalem, (b) Israel, and (c) the whole world?" and the resounding answer is "NO!" That should settle the matter right there.
1. To finish the transgression: the word "transgression" in Scripture generally applies to a violation or breaking of the Ten Commandments. Has the violation of the Ten Commandments stopped?
5. To seal up the vision and prophecy: all visions and prophecies must be fulfilled, and once they are fulfilled there is no further need for this. Once again that can only happen when the New Heavens and the New Earth are firmly in place.
6. To anoint the most Holy: this can only be a reference to the final temple in Jerusalem as described in Ezekiel. God will see this temple as "most holy".
I should think it is the High Priest, Ananus Ben Ananus
It is not just the person, it also the position that is cut off.
Hence he (The High Priest) has nothing - The High Priest ceases to exist.
Daniel is forbidden in IsraelYours is one way to view it, but not the only way. Remember, the Pharisees had very specific ways of interpreting the messianic prophecies, yet when the Messiah came along, He did not fit their preconceived ideas, and they didn't recognize Him. To me, the futurist approach to Daniel 9 suffers from exactly the same error.
It doesn't say he comes - it just says he is cut offNot sure why Gabriel would be saying a high priest will come in 69 weeks of years only to be cut off immediately following
Can you explain this to me?
No. I am not re-defining everlasting righteousness. So firstly let's see what Peter says about the New Heavens and the New Earth.You are defining "everlasting righteousness" in a self-determined context when there is a different context given us.