Let me draw your attention to what I've addressed in past posts of this thread... a couple of things in particular, to this point ^ ...
where I'm showing that Paul is
not starting an entirely new Subject in chapter 2 from that of what he'd already been speaking of in the previous chapter (
@FreeGrace2 also). But I find two significant issues with how many people interpret chpt 1 (and
consequently parts of chpt 2):
[I've pointed out...]
--wherever the phrases
"the day of the Lord" and
"IN THAT DAY" are used (throughout scripture)
in the SAME CONTEXTS (i.e. in close proximity), they are
referring to the SAME TIME PERIOD; and such is the case
also of their use here
in THESE TWO CHPTS (1 & 2);
--they are
not referring
merely to "a singular 24-hr day," but
a TIME PERIOD;
--this is true also of what
2 Thess chapter 1 verses 7-10 is speaking to, [that SAME EXACT]
TIME PERIOD that will end at a certain point in time (i.e. the TRIB YEARS unfolding
upon the earth, that will end with His Second Coming
to the earth), aka the "IN THE NIGHT" ASPECT
OF "the day of the Lord" TIME PERIOD... which Subject
CARRIES OVER INTO Paul's
chpt 2 continuing of the SAME TOPIC! He has
NOT "switched gears"...
he is still covering what he's already covered [ / described]
in the FIRST CHPT...
The problem enters when ppl do not recognize he's referring to
a TIME PERIOD (esp in vv.7-10), and
mistakenly think he is referring
merely to "a singular 24-hr day / point-in-time." He's not.