50 Reasons For a Pretribulational Rapture By Dr. John F. Walvoord

[GaryA]

1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.

If the dead and living are raptured at the same time then this verse makes no sense but if the dead are with Christ already, then the raptured living saints meet with Christ the verse makes perfect sense.

You are confusing 'resurrection' and 'rapture'.

Consider:

1) the dead in Christ rise [first]

2) they, along with the living (in Christ) are "changed" - together at the same time

3) all are raptured together to the clouds to be with Jesus

It is really very simple...

 

[GaryA]

Too many people assume certain things they assume to be facts

determine to be facts

 

[GaryA]

That was a type-o...thousand years should have just been "the"...I have software that types "thousand years" when I type "th" as a shortcut.

Was 'type-o' a typo?



'typo' is an abbreviation for 'typographical' [error]

 

[GRACE_ambassador]

the sole issue in a pretrib rapture...That all resurrected and raptured believers are taken from earth to heaven to wait out the Trib, and then coming back to earth with Christ at His Second Advent.

Precious friend, not "an issue" at all, but The Result Of God
Ending This Current "Age Of GRACE!" These are "the issues":

(1) All saints SINCE Adam are "members Of The Body Of CHRIST"?
Impossible, since "The Body Of CHRIST" did NOT exist until:

Paul, the FIRST ONE in:
"IF any man be in CHRIST, There Is a NEW Creation...!":

2Co 5:16 "Wherefore henceforth know we no man after
the flesh: yea, though we have known CHRIST after the flesh,
yet NOW henceforth know we HIM no more."

{"after THE FLESH" Correct?} Precious friend(s), Do you NOW:

"know HIM As The Risen And GLORIFIED HEAD Of The Body Of CHRIST,
seated in the HEAVENLIES"? Or, do you Still struggle, like the multitudes
who are trying to accomplish ALL of the Red-Letter Words Spoken By
CHRIST {"in THE FLESH!"} To ISRAEL And The TWELVE, on the earth?

2Co 5:17 Therefore if any man be in CHRIST, he is a new creature:
old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.
{Translator's italics, Correct?}

For 42 years NOW, I have heard this interpreted as applicable to me, "a
new creature," Baptized BY The Holy Spirit Into the Body Of CHRIST, BUT:

While "that idea" may be partially true, it is the Next Clause that troubles
me, because IF "OLD THINGS are passed away," And: "I still struggle with
my "old SINFUL nature," which WILL NOT PASS AWAY Until redemption /
glorification {resurrected or leaving earth!}, then what is the Correct
Meaning? So, I Considered THIS:

Eph 2:14 "For He is our peace, Who hath made both ONE, and
hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
Eph 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the
law of commandments contained in ordinances; for To Make
In Himself of twain ONE New man, so making peace;"

1Ti_1:16 "Howbeit for this cause I obtained MERCY, that in me FIRST
JESUS CHRIST might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to
them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting."

IF This Is "The Body Of CHRIST," THEN, Even Peter recognized God's
Change In Dispensations, Because, AFTER Paul "was Saved" in Acts 9...

...And "Peter saw God Give the Gentiles he was sent to, receive the Holy
Ghost BEFORE water baptism," in Acts_10:45-47 KJB, then he recounted
the incident, in their Confusion of the Law meeting here, concluding:

Act 15:9 "And put no difference between us and them,
purifying their hearts by faith.
Act 15:10 Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck
of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear?
Act 15:11 But we believe that Through The GRACE of The LORD JESUS
CHRIST we shall be saved, Even as they. {were saved?}"

Now WHY would Peter say such foolishness, Because according to
ALL critics, "there is ONLY ONE gospel," AND "Peter AND Paul
preached EXACTLY the SAME thing!" Wait, is that true? Or is THIS?:
God's Approval/TWO Different Gospels

Q: Is not The ONE NEW man {NOT a bride/woman} The Body Of CHRIST,
Starting With Paul, And Ending With "God Recalling/REMOVING ALL HIS
ambassadors (2Co_5:20), whose Citizenship is IN HEAVEN (Phil 3:20),
Before "Declaring War/Judgment/GREAT trib" on this wicked and
UNbelieving world?

When this is digested, we could continue with The NEXT Issue?:

Great {PRE-TOJT} GRACE Departure:
(2) WHICH Gospel "Makes Way" for the Other gospel? IF you wish...

Be Blessed!

 

[randyk]

When one begins to "spiritualize" dynamics where does it end?
Who decides?

All that stuff you are believing is not IMO biblical.

I don't believe I was "spiritualizing" anything. But your concern is noted.

 

[Absolutely]

We both read the Bible. It depends on your interpretation. I believe Christian Jews were called, by Jesus, to watch for this coming event in 70 AD. How do I know this? I know this because Jesus was saying this while the Law was still in effect. That had to be largely for Jewish believers, since the Gentile Church was not yet born.

Was this about 70 AD? I believe so. Why do I know this? I know it because the Olivet Discourse began with Jesus' statement that the temple was going to be demolished--a very, very big deal at the time. It was the end of the Jews' religion under the Law, which had been going since about 1500 BC!

The Romans came twice, once in 66 AD and again in 70 AD. The 2nd time they came they demolished the temple, and took away Jewish captives. They left some Jews to manage the fields for them. None of this has a thing to do with the Rapture of the international Church!



It's possible I missed your intent. But I dodged nothing!



It is absolutely possible that Jesus came metaphorically in judgment, though certainly not physically. For example, in the OT God is said to come in judgment when He brought major judgments to either Israel or to their enemies. And in Luke 17, Jesus indicated he is coming in the context of 70 AD with respect to bringing judging against the Jewish People. He also said he would bring judgment when in the book of Revelation he said he was coming to judge those in the 7 churches who wouldn't repent.



No, I memorized the chapter many years ago. I didn't miss any of the questions. It's phrased in different ways in all 3 Gospel accounts. The Disciples wanted to know what would happen to Israel if indeed their religion was to be destroyed. They knew Messiah was supposed to come and save Israel--not destroy Israel. And so, they wanted to know how these things fit together and how they fit into a timeline.

Jesus answered by saying it would happen in their generation. Then a long period of tribulation would begin for the Jewish People. Finally, this tribulation would end with Messiah coming back to save those who were faithful and to save the nation itself.



I don't think Jesus shifted the dialogue at all. He just answered the questions. He informed the Disciples *when* the destruction of the temple would take place. It would be in their generation. And he began by talking about the preliminary events that would portend this event, the initial "birth pains."

Finally, he explains that at the end of a long terrible period of tribulation for the Jewish People, their salvation would finally come at his coming from the clouds. It is a reference to Daniel 7, where the Son of Man comes with the clouds to save Israel from the Antichrist.



The Flood represents death for sin. We are all saved from death for sin *before* that death happens. We can be saved today!

Jesus referenced the Flood as a warning to Israel that they also would be inundated under God's judgment for rejecting the Messiah, who was a kind of "Noah" in their own day. He was warning them to repent, and knew they wouldn't largely do this. Therefore, they would be inundated and destroyed.

This is a comparison to the judgment the Jews knew would come in the last days to destroy their enemies. But Jesus was saying it would encompass the Jews, as well, in his own day.

Certainly, the Flood of Noah represents the last day judgment of the world. But Jesus meant to apply it also to the judgment about to take place in Israel in his own generation. The only ones delivered from this judgment were those disciples who believed Jesus and escaped when they saw the Roman Army, the "Abomination of Desolation."

And yes, they did escape *before* the conflagration. This was not a Pretrib Rapture, but rather, an escape from judgment while these things took place on the earth.

"""And yes, they did escape *before* the conflagration. This was not a Pretrib Rapture, but rather, an escape from judgment while these things took place on the earth."""

Lol
Postribs believe the opposite.

No escape.

It starts getting ridiculous when escape is not escape but rather really is a sorta escape.

Noah....pretrib escape. Vividly portrayed

Lot....pretrib escape.....vividly portrayed

Baby Jesus .....pretrib escape...vividly portrayed

Jesus used both Noah and Lot
Both gathered pretrib

....and please show me where Jesus is depicted in rev 19 as coming to save anyone or where anyone "escapes" postrib.

That entire postrib rapture( or whatever you guys now call the catching up/gathering of the bride postrib) is debunked 6 ways to tuesday

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
If the dead believers get their new bodies IN heaven before the trip to earth, why would Paul have written "rise up"?

He said "rise" not rise up"

When the word "rise" is used, what is the direction, please? Up or down? Please educate me.

and it comes from this Greek word:

G450
ἀνίστημι
anistēmi
an-is'-tay-mee
From G303 and G2476; to stand up (literally or figuratively, transitively or intransitively): - arise, lift up, raise up (again), rise (again), stand up (-right).
Total KJV occurrences: 112[/QUOTE]
Interesting. In the definition of the word I counted the word "up" 4 times. Are you getting the picture?

It simply means to "stand up" as in a body being able to stand up.

OK, 2 more times for "up". Good job.

When the bodiless dead in heaven resurrect, they receive that new physical body and they can indeed stand up physically again.

The problem is your assumption that all this happens in heaven.

They do not leaven heaven as spirits, enter their dead bodies and resurrect then join the rapture to be changed in the clouds. What happens is Christ leaves heaven, then the dead "rise" because they receive the new body then they also leave heaven to follow Christ to the clouds where the living will be raptured to.

All assumption.

That's why Paul wrote this:

1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.

This verse doesn't help your assumptions. In fact, what part of "the dead" are sleeping, in figurative terms? Their bodies.

If the dead and living are raptured at the same time then this verse makes no sense but if the dead are with Christ already, then the raptured living saints meet with Christ the verse makes perfect sense.

I didn't say they are all changed at the same time. Paul was clear. The dead in Christ are raised first, followed by the living believers.

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
You already said that, and I showed that the trumpet judgments occur as a result of the ANGELS who sound the trumpets.

The angels blow trumpets in the vision. You have to interpret what John saw.

No, you have to just read what John wrote. Events occurred as a result of the angels sounding the trumpets. I proved that.

And you have NO verses that say or even suggest that either of the 2 Witnesses caused the events that occurred when the 7 angels sounded their trumpets.

Yes, the 2 Witnesses DO cause events as well. But John recorded 6 events from the first 6 trumpets before he even got to the 2 Witnesses. So your assumptions cannot be correct.

Not everything John saw is literal in reality. You cannot assume that an actual angel will blow an actual trumpet.

Oh, good heavens. Really? There ARE angels in heaven. There ARE trumpets in heaven. The Bible says so and you are now just presuming what you have no right to presume.

It might happen, but you should never assume it to be fact and base something else on it. This is how people fall into error. You must learn what you can and cannot make assumptions about.

Given your kind of "interpretation" we can pretty much just ignore everything in the Bible and make up our own presumptions about what they "really mean" then.

Even so - could an angel blow a trumpet as the Two Witnesses cause something to happen?

John would have easily recorded that clearly if that's what will happen.

Too many people get hung up on all of the wrong details.

Too many people get hung up on their own presumptions too.

The 'events' in Revelation are literal; some of the 'details' in the vision - not necessarily.

The 'details' in the vision are there to help you understand the vision; however, the moment you assume they exist in reality just like they do in the vision, you risk error.

By "vision" John recorded the future events that WILL OCCUR. How is that not obvious?

Too many people assume certain things they assume to be facts - and then, wrap their eschatology around it. Then, they remain in error - because they refuse to let go of those assumptions.

And...that's you.

Things like:

7 year trib
first half
last half
seals, trumpets, and vials are all GT

(Not suggesting what you believe - just giving examples.)

Why wouldn't anyone not believe these 4 things?

I built my Order of Events chart strictly on these three questions and nothing else.

"Assuming" you are right, of course.

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
The Bible does not mention where the reign will occur

It does actually:

Rev 5:10 And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth.

Rev 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

OK, thanks. Now tell TDW that. He refuses to believe in a literal 1,000 yr reign on earth.

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
So, what exactly is taking time between Matt 24:29 and 30?

The Trumpet Events - which are what is being described in verse 29.

Matt 24-
29 “Immediately after the distress of those days “ ‘the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from the sky, and the heavenly bodies will be shaken.’
30“Then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven. And then all the peoples of the earthwill mourn when they see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven, with power and great glory.
31 And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other.

Note from v.29 the words "AFTER the distsress of those days". THAT is the Trib. All of it.

So, following the Trib there will be "signs in the heavens" as described. What are they for? To announce the coming of the Lord at the Second Advent.

v.30 says that clearly.

v.31 doesn't have to be the last of the 7 trumpet judgments. But if it is, then it's announcing the immediate appearance of the Lord's Second Coming.

I still don't see any delay or time gap between v.29 and v.30. I think you are presuming things.

 

[FreeGrace2]

All of this may be interesting to think about and discuss - but - it is moot with regard to the point I was making.

There will be mortal people born and live during the Millennium. Some will be saved, and some will be lost.

Except for one thing. There is NO evidence in the Bible that there will be any evangelism during the Millennial reign. Yes, Jesus Christ WILL rule the nations with an iron scepter. That means His rule will be very strict, as we see from Matt 5; that He will rule by the "spirit of the Law" rather than the "letter of the Law". iow, intent will be judged, even before actions occur from such intents.

That will cause irritation and resentment for those ruled. Which explains WHY Satan will be able again to gather the whole world against Christ when he is released from his imprisonment.

How do you explain the world wide rebellion at the end of the 1,000 years, if there are mortal believers living?

When will the saved - from the Millennium - have their "BEMA" judgment?

I don't see any evidence for that, because there isn't any evidence of saved people in the Millennium.

All evidence points to only mortal unbelievers (survivors of the Trib; half of earth's population) will enter the Millennium. All believers will have imperishable bodies and rule with Christ during the Millennium.

And there's that little thing about total world revolt at the end of the reign.

So I don't assume that there will be any saved people in the Millennium.

 

[FreeGrace2]

The GT ends "well before" the Wrath of God is "dished out" - by Jesus Himself - after He arrives at the Second Coming of Christ.

Rapture happens first - the first thing Jesus does when He comes.

Then Wrath of God.

Could you just quote the specific verses (or just citations if your fingers are tired) that supports God's wrath AFTER Christ returns?

This is what the Bible says concerning the last bowl judgment, which is the last of the series of the 3 sets of judgments:

Rev 16:17 - The seventh angel poured out his bowl into the air, and out of the temple came a loud voice from the throne, saying, “It is done!”

So, the LAST judgment from the LAST set says "It is done".

Armageddon is at/near the end of the Wrath of God.

Armageddon is the END of the Trib, when Jesus comes in power.

 

[Absolutely]

Huh?
You have tons of info removed from the table.
1) in lot and noah THE INLAWS STAYED. ..(family)
2) IT IS 50% of FAMILY in the "one taken/left" as well as the virgin parable that are left behind.
3) NOTHING of the assumption or ascribing of "wicked" to the foolish virgins or the " one taken" fits
That is strictly made up. NOTHING points to it....nothing.

In the 10 virgins half righteous removed

In the one taken/left half righteous removed.

The "glaring mistake" most all on this board make is "tares gathered first".

That mishap of application IS THE BASES for REFRAMING those RAPTURE VERSES i mentioned above.

Hello....Jesus even said concerning the tares "the harvest is at the end of the world"
That alone should be enough to stop reframing the rapture verses.

But there is more....Even without Jesus explicitly destroying the tares dynamic, we KNOW FOR A FACT. you guys are off because the tares are burned.( lof)
Hello....that is AFTER THE MIL.
TARES<> BURNED AFTER THE MIL.(LOF)
GATHERED AFTER THE MIL.

There is a verse. Where the tares are gathered last.( yet another huge destructing of the tares error)

The whole tares thingy ( where all have been led down a rabbit trail) is a non issue.
Doctrines actually built on a nothing burger.....SMH

I am definitely biblical and i check out everything

I have never seen anyone bring these verses to the table;

Mat 3
Righteous gathered FIRST

Mat 25
Righteous gathered first.

 

[randyk]

"""And yes, they did escape *before* the conflagration. This was not a Pretrib Rapture, but rather, an escape from judgment while these things took place on the earth."""

Lol
Postribs believe the opposite.
No escape.

Absolutely untrue! Postribs have believed for 2000 years that the Jewish Christians escaped to Pella before 70 AD.

It starts getting ridiculous when escape is not escape but rather really is a sorta escape.

Are you suggesting that only a Pretrib Rapture is a "complete" escape? Where is the Pretrib Rapture depicted in the Bible as an "escape" at all? All I ever see are references to events that have nothing whatsoever to do with the Rapture of the Church. Enoch didn't escape. Elijah didn't escape. When Jesus ascended, he didn't escape. Christians escaped to Pella from the 70 AD disaster. The Philadelphian Church escaped a great tribulation in their time, though it certainly didn't happen by "Rapture!"

Noah....pretrib escape. Vividly portrayed
Lot....pretrib escape.....vividly portrayed
Baby Jesus .....pretrib escape...vividly portrayed

None of these events had a thing to do with a Rapture to heaven!

Jesus used both Noah and Lot
Both gathered pretrib

No, Jesus used Noah and Lot as indications that Christians are going to escape eternal judgment at the judgment seat of Christ. Neither Noah nor Lot experienced a Pretrib Rapture to heaven!

Do you dare suggest that neither Noah nor Lot experienced any "tribulation" on the earth? They both lived in the most wicked of times! They didn't escape it--rather, the wicked were destroyed. The righteous were kept alive and preserved.

....and please show me where Jesus is depicted in rev 19 as coming to save anyone or where anyone "escapes" postrib.

I never said Postrib or any Rapture is about "escape!" You're the one saying that!

That entire postrib rapture( or whatever you guys now call the catching up/gathering of the bride postrib) is debunked 6 ways to tuesday

I'll try to resist comment...

 

[FreeGrace2]

You are confusing 'resurrection' and 'rapture'.

Consider:

1) the dead in Christ rise [first]

2) they, along with the living (in Christ) are "changed" - together at the same time

3) all are raptured together to the clouds to be with Jesus

It is really very simple...

You just proved they are the same. Can't have one without the other. They go together. Both the dead and living receive the SAME KIND of body, an imperishable one.

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
the sole issue in a pretrib rapture...That all resurrected and raptured believers are taken from earth to heaven to wait out the Trib, and then coming back to earth with Christ at His Second Advent.

Precious friend, not "an issue" at all

It is absolutely THE issue in a pretrib rapture; believers being taken to heaven. That's the whole point of a pretrib rapture; getting all believers off earth and into heaven.

But pretribbers can't prove their claim.

, but The Result Of God
Ending This Current "Age Of GRACE!"

God has treated all mankind in grace from Adam on. Titus 2:11 is about salvation, which is the SAME for every age of human history, whether you call them "covenants" or "dispensations".

For the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people.

Here, "all peope" doesn't begin circa 33 AD. It begins with Adam. So God's grace has appeared and offers salvation to everyone.

These are "the issues":

(1) All saints SINCE Adam are "members Of The Body Of CHRIST"?
Impossible, since "The Body Of CHRIST" did NOT exist until:

Paul, the FIRST ONE in:
"IF any man be in CHRIST, There Is a NEW Creation...!":

The same Paul who wrote this:

But each in turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him. 1 Cor 15:23

The words "those who belong to Him" are those He SAVES. All of the saved people, from Adam on, belong to Him.

Christ died for everyone, but only those who have believed in Him for salvation belong to Him.

If only the "Bride of Christ" comes with Him to be resurrected, what happens to all the OT saints? Are they ever given imperishable bodies? And when? Scripture please.

Great {PRE-TOJT} GRACE Departure:

There is no "grace departure". That is speculation.

(2) WHICH Gospel "Makes Way" for the Other gospel? IF you wish...

What do you mean by "the other gospel"? There's only 1 gospel. And there are many false gospels. Read Gal 1.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Absolutely said:
When one begins to "spiritualize" dynamics where does it end?
Who decides?

All that stuff you are believing is not IMO biblical.

I don't believe I was "spiritualizing" anything. But your concern is noted.

This is just hilarious!! The poster who insinuates you are spiritualizing is one of the most prolific spiritualizers of all.

What he does to the wedding parable in Matt 25 is stunning.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Lol Postribs believe the opposite. No escape.

When are you EVER going to get our position right? You NEVER state it correctly. It would seem you do this intentionally, just to have something to argue against. I absolutely will argue against your INCORRECT statement about the posttrib position.

I've pointed out many times that God can and will protect believers from His wrath just the way He did for the Israelites in Egypt. But feel free to ignore that fact and go your own way.

It starts getting ridiculous when escape is not escape but rather really is a sorta escape.

More error.

Noah....pretrib escape. Vividly portrayed

How about the Jews in Egypt. Was that an actual escape from God's judgment on Egypt or just "sorta an escape"?

Lot....pretrib escape.....vividly portrayed

Nonsense. Lot wasn't raptured in any sense. He walked away on his own power. How do you spiritualize that fact to keep your theory afloat?

Baby Jesus .....pretrib escape...vividly portrayed

He was carried by His parents. So you're going to spiritualize that too?

That entire postrib rapture( or whatever you guys now call the catching up/gathering of the bride postrib) is debunked 6 ways to tuesday

OK, once again, here is 2 Thess 2:1

Concerning the coming (Second Advent) of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered (rapture) to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters,

I have inserted 2 parentheses to explain the words immediately preceding my parentheses.

Since you are so bold about your view, are you brave enough to quote that verse and put in parentheses what you think they mean, as I just did?

If you ignore this request, your theory will be shown for what it is; empty of facts.

 

[FreeGrace2]

I have never seen anyone bring these verses to the table;

Mat 3
Righteous gathered FIRST

Mat 25
Righteous gathered first.

OK, so now you have. Do you have a point about them? Please share.

 

[Thewatchman]

He said "rise" not rise up" and it comes from this Greek word:

G450
ἀνίστημι
anistēmi
an-is'-tay-mee
From G303 and G2476; to stand up (literally or figuratively, transitively or intransitively): - arise, lift up, raise up (again), rise (again), stand up (-right).
Total KJV occurrences: 112

It simply means to "stand up" as in a body being able to stand up. When the bodiless dead in heaven resurrect, they receive that new physical body and they can indeed stand up physically again. They do not leaven heaven as spirits, enter their dead bodies and resurrect then join the rapture to be changed in the clouds. What happens is Christ leaves heaven, then the dead "rise" because they receive the new body then they also leave heaven to follow Christ to the clouds where the living will be raptured to. That's why Paul wrote this:

1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.

If the dead and living are raptured at the same time then this verse makes no sense but if the dead are with Christ already, then the raptured living saints meet with Christ the verse makes perfect sense.

Paul starts this train of thought in verse 13 But I would not ave you ignorant[unlurned, without proper knowlage, not stuped or dumb] brothern concerning them that are asleep[dead] that you sorrow not, even as others wich have no hope. [Paul did not say don't greave; when someone you love dies you are going to feal it. We are not to greave as those that have no hope. We can take hoe in knowing that our lovedones in Christ are in a better place. Paradice, Abraham's bosom, the holding plae of God for everyone that dies, good, or bad]
Verse 14. For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them that also sleep [die, are dead] in Christ shall rise first: [ just as Jesus coul not be held by the grave nither can the grave hold any that have died from the begining of time till know, and untill Jesus returns at the 7th trump. Ref. 1st Corinthians 15.] Verse 15 For this we say to you by he word of the Lord, [not Paul's words not my words but the Lords words] that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord[we that are alive and here at the sound of the 7th trump, the last trump 1st Corintians 15 when the Lord returns] shall not prevent them which are asleep. [ go before them that have already past on. They are already there they are in that holding place the busom of Abraham.] Verse 16. For the Lord Himself shall descend from heaven with the shout, [with a comand] with the voice of the archangle, with the trmp of God: [the 7th trump] and the dead in Christ will rise first: [The dead in Christ: If you are on this earth and have not receaved Jesus Christ as your savior you are as dead as a hammer and they shall go before the believers in Christ. As stated in 1st Corinthians 15 all ths is going to happen in a moment in the twinkle of an eye] Verse 17. Then we which are alive and remain, shall be caught up together in the clouds [where ae the clous? in the sky, in the atmosphere. In other words we are not leaving the earth.] so we shal ever be with the Lord. [ So wher do we go? Jesus will gather us togethe on the Mt of Olives where He splits the moutian to make the valley for the millennial tempel and alotment.] Verse 18. Wherefore comfort one anther with these words. [ what do we tell people? I know you are hurting right know and over time things will get better. Just remember you will see your loved one again be it in pairadice or when we all gather back to meet Jesus at the Mt of Olives on the first day of the millennium and we shall always be together with them and the Lord.]