The big problem is there is just no evidence for pre-trib.
I have heard that theory, based on the fact that Jesus did not want Mary to touch him (or cling to Him?) because He had not yet ascended to the Father, and Jesus let Thomas touch his hands. Is there any other evidence for this idea?
It would be wiser to say "I can't find any biblical evidence for pre-trib." The truth is, millions have found it.
First, it seems that after a few years (after Pentecost and before Paul) that God gave Israel many chances to receive Him as their Messiah as a nation - but they refused.
God then determined to go to the Gentiles and take for Him a people who WOULD accept Jesus as their savior. Paul's gospel is that FAITH in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ brings salvation. Peter's gospel was "Jesus is your long awaited Messiah: believe on Him and be saved.
From all the biblical evidence, it seems God inserted a huge parenthesis: Jewish age .
.( church age
)..Jewish age.
Then keep in mind, some verses are pointed to the church, as 1 Thes 4, while others are pointed to the Jews, as in gathering the elect after the trib. In fact, it is clear that the "trib" or 70th week is for Daniel's people, NOT THE CHURCH. Scriptures pointed to the Jews will not fit the church, and scriptures pointed to the church will not fit Israel or the Jews.
I challenge the readers to search out the Olivet Discourse looking for words that would point to the church. I think Jesus was speaking to Jews about the end of THEIR age.
With all this in mind, Paul is the only writer that received revelation of the rapture. And He said it was a mystery. So before Paul wrote, no one knew that those alive and in Christ would be caught up after the resurrection of the dead in Christ. Therefore, for rapture timing, wisdom would point us to Paul and Paul alone. (we might find supporting verses elsewhere as in John 14)
A big question: while Jesus was alive on earth, did He know that later the Jewish church would die out and the Father would turn to the Gentiles?
What do we find then for timing information in 1 Thes.? In chapter 5 - still talking about the rapture, Paul mentions both the Day of the Lord and the wrath of God. I am convinced the reason is, the rapture is back to back with the start of the DAY, so no time between. His coming will "trigger" the rapture, then the rapture will trigger the DAY. And take careful not, it will happen at a time when people are saying "peace and safety" so perhaps a day just like TODAY.
If this is truth, the rapture just before wrath, WHERE would it fit in John's narrative in Revelation? It would fit just before the start of the DAY of wrath at the 6th seal. In fact, it is a PERFECT fit, for at the 5th seal, the marytrs of the church age, they cried out wondering when God would judge their murders. They are told they have to wait for the very last martyr killed as they were - as church age martyrs.
What would make the very last church age martyr? Of course the rapture that would end the church age. Poststrib runs the church age into the Day of the Lord and then into the 70th week. WRONG! The church age must end to make the very last church age martyr. So the last one is killed, then the rapture, the church age ends, the Day of the Lord begins, as the 6th seal is opened, and then it will probably only ten more days (the days of awe) to the 7th seal that starts the 70th week.
My friend, this means a PRETRIB rapture. As a "clincher" John then saw the raptured church in heaven in the next chapter. Therefore, don't say there are no scriptures or no evidence for a pretrib rapture. The truth is, John saw the church in heaven pretrib.