50 Reasons For a Pretribulational Rapture By Dr. John F. Walvoord

[TheDivineWatermark]

[LISTING from BibleHub]

New International Version
not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us--whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter--asserting that the day of the Lord has already come.

New Living Translation
Don’t be so easily shaken or alarmed by those who say that the day of the Lord has already begun. Don’t believe them, even if they claim to have had a spiritual vision, a revelation, or a letter supposedly from us.

English Standard Version
not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.

Berean Study Bible
not to be easily disconcerted or alarmed by any spirit or message or letter seeming to be from us, alleging that the Day of the Lord has already come.

New American Standard Bible
that you not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit, or a message, or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.

NASB 1995
that you not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit or a message or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.

NASB 1977
that you may not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit or a message or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.

Amplified Bible
not to be quickly unsettled or alarmed either by a [so-called prophetic revelation of a] spirit or a message or a letter [alleged to be] from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has [already] come.

Christian Standard Bible
not to be easily upset or troubled, either by a prophecy or by a message or by a letter supposedly from us, alleging that the day of the Lord has come.

Holman Christian Standard Bible
not to be easily upset in mind or troubled, either by a spirit or by a message or by a letter as if from us, alleging that the Day of the Lord has come.

[...]
Good News Translation
not to be so easily confused in your thinking or upset by the claim that the Day of the Lord has come. Perhaps it is thought that we said this while prophesying or preaching, or that we wrote it in a letter.

GOD'S WORD® Translation
Don't get upset right away or alarmed when someone claims that we said through some spirit, conversation, or letter that the day of the Lord has already come.

International Standard Version
not to be so quickly upset or alarmed when someone claims that we said, either by some spirit, conversation, or letter that the Day of the Lord has already come.

NET Bible
not to be easily shaken from your composure or disturbed by any kind of spirit or message or letter allegedly from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord is already here.

[...]
New Heart English Bible
not to be quickly shaken in your mind, nor yet be troubled, either by spirit, or by word, or by letter as from us, saying that the day of the Lord had come.

[...]
Darby Bible Translation
that ye be not soon shaken in mind, nor troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter, as [if it were] by us, as that the day of the Lord is present.

English Revised Version
to the end that ye be not quickly shaken from your mind, nor yet be troubled, either by spirit, or by word, or by epistle as from us, as that the day of the Lord is now present;

Literal Standard Version
that you are not quickly shaken in mind, nor be troubled, neither through spirit, neither through word, neither through letters as through us, as that the Day of the LORD has arrived;

Berean Literal Bible
for you not quickly to be shaken in mind, nor to be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as if by us, as that day of the Lord is present.

[...]
Aramaic Bible in Plain English
That you would not be soon shaken in your minds, neither be troubled, either from word, nor from a spirit, neither from an epistle that is as if from us, namely, that, “Behold, The Day of our Lord has arrived.”

Godbey New Testament
that you be not suddenly shaken from your mind, nor disturbed, whether by a spirit, or through word, or a letter as by us, as that the day of the Lord has come.

Weymouth New Testament
not readily to become unsettled in mind or troubled--either by any pretended spiritual revelation or by any message or letter claiming to have been sent by us--through fancying that the day of the Lord is now here.

Worrell New Testament
that ye be not quickly shaken from your mind, nor be troubled, either by spirit, or by word, or by letter as from us, as that the day of the Lord has set in.

@GaryA , what I am not seeing, in your viewpoint, is the following:


Put yourself in the place of a Thessalonian for a moment (to "try your scenario on, for size," so to speak... coz I'm not seeing it!)


What would it have looked like, for you [y'all] to have been told by these false conveyors, this (the underlined thing they were saying):

"2 for you not quickly to be shaken in mind, nor to be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as if by us, as [/purporting] that the day of the Lord is present."

[or, another]

"2 not to be easily disconcerted or alarmed by any spirit or message or letter seeming to be from us, alleging that the Day of the Lord has already come."



--as a Thessalonian (you / y'all), what is it about what they're saying here would have caused a "shaken in mind" and "troubled / disturbed" reaction in you / y'all?

--as a Thessalonian (you / y'all), what is it about what they're saying here would cause you to potentially "be deceived"... thus requiring this letter of exhortation by Paul to NOT be deceived by what they're saying here, to y'all?

--what does it mean to you (a Thessalonian) for it to be/have been presented to you [as they're saying] "that the day of the Lord is present"? What are you picturing as they say this to y'all?

--what would motivate these false conveyors to SAY such a thing to you / y'all (as Thessalonians) "the day of the Lord is present"?

--I have other Qs, but this is all I want to put in this already-too-long post. = )

 

[GaryA]

Gary.......from what I can see here there is not one single instance of the term being used in the manner you espouse.

In every place that word (G1764) - with that tense - is found.

Somebody tell me that I'm wrong.

Okay - you're wrong...

(haha - couldn't resist)

As for your theory that the term has nothing to do with time I find that to be ludicrous.

I think you probably just misunderstood what I was trying to say...?

Hopefully, post #639 was a better explanation.

 

[GaryA]

So you are saying that the Thessalonians are "shaken" and "troubled" because they thought that TDOTL was "available"? Absolute hogwash.

My explanation reached into the depths of Greek grammar - I regret it if you were unable to follow the thought-process of my explanation.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

This is moot.

The idea of 'present' in the meaning of the word is not time-based - as in 'past'/'present'/'future'.

"The idea of 'present' in the meaning of the word is not time-based - as in 'past'/'present'/'future'."



Only in the "PERFECT INDICATIVE" it does, see.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

^ EDIT to ADD:

[quoting from Greek grammar source]

"Perfect - Completed, with Results - Time Element (In Indicative Mood): past, with present results"


See that?!



[now... you can view my Post #641 in view of the above-quoted info, and respond accordingly ]



THIS IS KEY! (to interpreting v.2 correctly... as to what they were SAYING / PURPORTING / ALLEGING)

 

[GaryA]

"The idea of 'present' in the meaning of the word is not time-based - as in 'past'/'present'/'future'."



Only in the "PERFECT INDICATIVE" it does, see.

I was referring specifically to the G1764 word.

You are still not getting it...

You need to "brush up" on Greek verb 'tense'.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

^ A couple more quotes (Grk grammar sources):

"[re: PERFECT tense] The element of “time” in a Greek verb is only prevalent and primary if the verb is in the indicative mood."


[and]

"The perfect and pluperfect tenses are indentical in aspect though different in time. Thus both speak of an event accomplished in the past (in the indicative mood) with results existing afterwards - the perfect speaking of existing results in the present, the pluperfect speaking of existing results in the past."






So SEE the verb, G1764: https://biblehub.com/text/2_thessalonians/2-2.htm [ V-RIA-3S (<--this "R" means "PERFECT tense" and the "I" means "INDICATIVE"--just as is explained in the above portion of this post)]

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

My explanation reached into the depths of Greek grammar

You've not quite "plumbed the depth" of it deeply enough, to that point... but you'll get there, I'm confident of it! = )

 

[lamad]

Precious friend, I favor The Day Of CHRIST, because of this:

Day Of CHRIST {gr: Christos *} vs Day Of The LORD {gr: Kurios}!
----------------- { Also The Day Of God [gr: Theos]! }:

Obeying God's Command In 2 Timothy 2 : 15, we have This!:

According To the preaching of JESUS CHRIST, In The Revelation
Of The Mystery! (Romans - Philemon!) = "The Day Of CHRIST!"

Rightly Divided (2 Timothy 2 : 15!) From "Things That DIFFER":

According to God's "Prophetic" Program in: Daniel,
Matthew, And Revelation! = "The Day Of The LORD!"

q: WHY would ANYONE In The Body of CHRIST,
"Today, desire" The Day Of The LORD?:

When God Inspired HIS "prophet" Amos to pen THIS!:

"WOE Unto you that desire The Day Of The LORD!
To what end is it for you?...

...The Day Of The LORD Is Darkness, and not light...Shall not
The Day Of The LORD be Darkness, And Not light? Even Very
Dark, And No brightness in it?" (Amos 5 : 18, 20!)
------------------
"Expanded" For "Clarification!":

According To the preaching of JESUS CHRIST, In The Revelation
Of The Mystery! (Romans - Philemon!), "The Day Of CHRIST!" =

The "Judgment Day" Of The Heavenly Body Of CHRIST, who Will Be
Taken Home To Heaven { LIGHT! }, For "shame... ...rewards, rejoicing,
And reigning!" (1 Corinthians 3 : 8-15 KJB!) Amen?:

“That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit
nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that The Day Of CHRIST is at
hand." (2 Thessalonians 2 : 2 KJB!)

“Who Shall Confirm you Unto the end, that ye may be blameless
In The Day Of our LORD JESUS CHRIST!" (1 Corinthians 1 : 8!)

“To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh,
that the spirit may be saved In The Day Of The LORD JESUS!"
(1 Corinthians 5 : 5!)

“As also ye have acknowledged us in part, that we are your rejoicing,
even as ye also are ours in the In The Day Of The LORD JESUS!"
(2 Corinthians 1 : 14!)

“Being confident Of This Very Thing, That HE Which Hath Begun A
Good Work In you, Will Perform It Until The Day Of JESUS CHRIST!"
(Philippians 1 : 6!)

“That ye may approve things that are excellent; that ye
may be sincere and without offence till The Day Of CHRIST!"
(Philippians 1 : 10!)

“Holding forth The WORD Of Life; that I may rejoice in
The Day Of CHRIST that I have not run in vain, neither
laboured in vain." (Philippians 2 : 16!)

Rightly Divided (2 Timothy 2 : 15!) From "Things That DIFFER":

According To "Prophecy!":

The Day Of The LORD / "earthly" Israel / nations! in judgment /
wrath / battle / destruction / terror / DARKNESS / horror / pain! =
--------------------- Time Of JACOB's Trouble!!:

“The Day Of The LORD!” is common throughout the Old Testament.
The prophets referred constantly to it. In the New Testament,
The LORD JESUS CHRIST, Paul, and Peter referred to It! Some of
the Many Passages are the following:

Isaiah 2 : 11-12, 17, 13 : 4-6, 9, 13, 34 : 8; Jeremiah 46 : 10;
Ezekiel 13 : 5, 30 : 3; Joel 1 : 15, 2 : 1, 11, 31, 3 : 14;
Amos 5 : 18, 20; Obadiah 1 : 15; Zephaniah 1 : 7, 14;
Zechariah 14 : 1; Malachi 4 : 5; Matthew 24 : 1-51;
Acts 2 : 20; Romans 2 : 5; 1 Thessalonians 5 : 2;
2 Peter 3 : 10; Revelation 1 : 10;

compare: "That Day" in Isaiah 2 : 11, 17, 20, 3 : 18.

"That Day" is a time of terror, darkness, and wrath. It is a
“day of visitation” (Isaiah 10 : 3), a “Day of the Wrath Of
The LORD!” (Ezekiel 7 : 19), THE “Great Day Of The LORD!”
(Zephaniah 1 : 14!)

-------------

Finally, there is Also: "The Day Of God!":

"Looking for and hasting unto The Coming Of The Day Of God,
wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the
elements shall melt with fervent heat?" (2 Peter 3 : 12!)

----------
Again, God Admonishes ALL diligent Bible students:

"Prove ALL things; hold fast That Which Is Good!"
(1 Thessalonians 5 : 21!)

Precious friend(s), please Be Very Richly Blessed!

* Differing Greek texts may be the corrupt Egyptian manuscripts...

Try and find "the day of Christ" in Paul's first letter to the Thessalonians. You won't find it. It is the Day of the Lord that will be triggered by the rapture. The truth then is this: the closer we get to the day of the Lord, the closer we get to the rapture.

They were in great persecution. They thought they were in the Day of the Lord. You know, that dark day where God's plan is to destroy the world and the sinners in the world. That day would fit their persecution. How would this make sense if they thought they were in the day of Christ? They were very upset or troubled thinking they were in this terrible day of persecution. If Paul had taught the rapture AFTER the day of the Lord, or DURING the day of the Lord, why would they be upset or troubled: they were each day getting closer to the day of the rapture!

On the other hand, if they understand by Paul's first letter that the rapture would trigger the DAY, of course they would be troubled: either Paul was wrong or they were left behind!

Can you fit the Day of Christ into a scenario where you can explain why they were troubled?

How would you define the "Day of Christ?" Would that be the day He returns to Armageddon?

I might add, the trumpet judgments fit perfectly into the Old Testament description of the Day of the Lord. The trumpets will begin to destroy the earth and will begin to destroy sinners on the earth.

By the way, good job looking up all those scriptures. I will await your answer.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

The only problem with that is you're injecting what you think they were troubled about.

If you don't mind (and no rush), perhaps you could take a look at my Post #641 (alongside the info in Post #647 which pertains to the "perfect tense, indicative" of the verb in the phrase I'm pointing out in v.2, and what that means for it), and let me know how you are seeing it (meaning, what v.2 is showing about what the false conveyors were saying, and how you're seeing that--especially in view of what you put in your post, quoted at the top of this post). Thanks. = )

 

[cv5]

My explanation reached into the depths of Greek grammar - I regret it if you were unable to follow the thought-process of my explanation.

I was able, and consequently recognized your error.

 

[Truth7t7]

If you don't mind (and no rush), perhaps you could take a look at my Post #641 (alongside the info in Post #647 which pertains to the "perfect tense, indicative" of the verb in the phrase I'm pointing out in v.2, and what that means for it), and let me know how you are seeing it (meaning, what v.2 is showing about what the false conveyors were saying, and how you're seeing that--especially in view of what you put in your post, quoted at the top of this post). Thanks. = )

No need to consider your claim of (Perfect Tense Indicative) Gods Words Are Clear Below

The Greek "Apostasia" (Departure/Falling Away) isn't a Pre-Trib Rapture Of The Church To Heaven, it's that simple

Apostasia: (Defection From Truth) (Apostasy) (Falling Away) (Forsake) Who You Trying To Fool (Yourself)

Lexicon :: Strong's G646 - apostasia

Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.

KJV Translation Count — Total: 2x
The KJV translates Strong's G646 in the following manner: to forsake (with G575) (1x), falling away (1x).

2 Thessalonians 2:3KJV
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

2 Thessalonians 2:3KJV
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;




What "that day" is this verse 3a referencing from, elsewhere in this context?

Is it, the "day" having just been mentioned in the immediately-preceding verse (grammatically-speaking), v.2, the one that the false conveyors were "[v2, purporting / alleging] that the day of the Lord is present [perfect indicative--meaning, is already here]...

...at least, this is what the false conveyors were purporting/alleging, though untrue, and why Paul had reason to write the Thessalonians this second letter, to warn them:

"3 Let no man deceive you by any means: FOR that day will not be present, if not shall have come THE departure *FIRST* and the man of sin be revealed..."

<--the TWO items that would have been "seen/actualized," if what they were being told by those purporting/alleging this to them v.2 had actually been true: that "that day" is already here, supposedly [according to the false conveyors] already unfolding in their present experience at that time)...

So you've presented verse 3, spelled out, but what "day" is this verse 3 speaking of, according to your understanding of the text/context? What would the Thessalonians have known, about this Subject that Paul is writing to them about... what "day" were these false conveyors "purporting/alleging" to them about, as being supposedly "already here" ??

 

[Truth7t7]

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;




What "that day" is this verse 3a referencing from, elsewhere in this context?

Is it, the "day" having just been mentioned in the immediately-preceding verse (grammatically-speaking), v.2, the one that the false conveyors were "[v2, purporting / alleging] that the day of the Lord is present [perfect indicative--meaning, is already here]...

...at least, this is what the false conveyors were purporting/alleging, though untrue, and why Paul had reason to write the Thessalonians this second letter, to warn them:

"3 Let no man deceive you by any means: FOR that day will not be present, if not shall have come THE departure *FIRST* and the man of sin be revealed..."

<--the TWO items that would have been "seen/actualized," if what they were being told by those purporting/alleging this to them v.2 had actually been true: that "that day" is already here, supposedly [according to the false conveyors] already unfolding in their present experience at that time)...

So you've presented verse 3, spelled out, but what "day" is this verse 3 speaking of, according to your understanding of the text/context? What would the Thessalonians have known, about this Subject that Paul is writing to them about... what "day" were these false conveyors "purporting/alleging" to them about, as being supposedly "already here" ??

Is The Greek Word (Apostasia) A Rapture Of The Church To Heaven? (No)

The Greek "Apostasia"

(Departure/Falling Away) isn't a Pre-Trib Rapture Of The Church To Heaven, it's that simple

Apostasia: (Defection From Truth) (Apostasy) (Falling Away) (Forsake) Who You Trying To Fool (Yourself)

Lexicon :: Strong's G646 - apostasia

Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.

KJV Translation Count — Total: 2x
The KJV translates Strong's G646 in the following manner: to forsake (with G575) (1x), falling away (1x).

2 Thessalonians 2:3KJV
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

2 Thessalonians 2:3KJV
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

What "day" is that ^, that the false conveyors were purporting/alleging was already here (v.2)?? and that the Thessalonians had risk to have been DECEIVED by their saying this to them??

Do you have an answer... from the text?





Hint to the readers of this thread: where has the word "day" already just been mentioned in the text?

 

[Truth7t7]

What "day" is that ^, that the false conveyors were purporting/alleging was already here (v.2)?? and that the Thessalonians had risk to have been DECEIVED by their saying this to them??

Do you have an answer... from the text?





Hint to the readers of this thread: where has the word "day" already just been mentioned in the text?

What is that Greek word (Apostasia)?

Is The Greek Word (Apostasia) A Rapture Of The Church To Heaven? (No)

The Greek "Apostasia"

(Departure/Falling Away) isn't a Pre-Trib Rapture Of The Church To Heaven, it's that simple

Apostasia: (Defection From Truth) (Apostasy) (Falling Away) (Forsake) Who You Trying To Fool (Yourself)

Lexicon :: Strong's G646 - apostasia

Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.

KJV Translation Count — Total: 2x
The KJV translates Strong's G646 in the following manner: to forsake (with G575) (1x), falling away (1x).

2 Thessalonians 2:3KJV
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

What "day" is that ^, that the false conveyors were purporting/alleging was already here (v.2)?? and that the Thessalonians had risk to have been DECEIVED by their saying this to them??

Do you have an answer... from the text?

I personally have never had anyone in my immediate circles claiming / purporting / alleging that the day of the Lord is already here (per v.2), though over the past 20 years or so of my "online" experiences, I've seen a few nutcases attempting to convince people that it was! (an obviously-laughable idea, really!)

But, quite frankly, it's not too swift to be using an "out-of-context" verse, improperly understood and misapplied, to hammer others with, as though it pertained to them in any way.

Show us anyone in this thread who is claiming what these false conveyors in verse 2 were purporting / alleging ("that the day of the Lord is already here") and we can point them to v.3 where Paul is informing of how that that cannot be the case apart from the two items he names being in evidence (and neither is the case! [even yet in our present day ])

 

[Kolistus]

What is that Greek word (Apostasia)?

Is The Greek Word (Apostasia) A Rapture Of The Church To Heaven? (No)

The Greek "Apostasia"

(Departure/Falling Away) isn't a Pre-Trib Rapture Of The Church To Heaven, it's that simple

Apostasia: (Defection From Truth) (Apostasy) (Falling Away) (Forsake) Who You Trying To Fool (Yourself)

Lexicon :: Strong's G646 - apostasia

Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.

KJV Translation Count — Total: 2x
The KJV translates Strong's G646 in the following manner: to forsake (with G575) (1x), falling away (1x).

2 Thessalonians 2:3KJV
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

Many people who believe in the pre-trib rapture agree with you on the definition of the word apostasia. That does not prove a post-trib rapture, pre-trib is still a very manageable position with that view as well.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

They were in great persecution. They thought they were in the Day of the Lord.

Yes.

Verse 1:4 kind of sets the CONTEXT (of their setting, for this letter from Paul):

"... for your patience and faith in all your persecutions and tribulations that ye endure"


This SETTING (in the Thessalonians' ongoing experience) made what was said to them (by false conveyors) in 2:2 be a PERFECTLY REASONABLE thing for them to be persuaded was true (tho it wasn't);

whereas something completely "not reasonable" or "having NO evidence in their present experience" would not be so convincing to them to believe had already come... and therefore having no need for Paul to even address it in a letter.

 

[Runningman]

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;




What "that day" is this verse 3a referencing from, elsewhere in this context?

Is it, the "day" having just been mentioned in the immediately-preceding verse (grammatically-speaking), v.2, the one that the false conveyors were "[v2, purporting / alleging] that the day of the Lord is present [perfect indicative--meaning, is already here]...

...at least, this is what the false conveyors were purporting/alleging, though untrue, and why Paul had reason to write the Thessalonians this second letter, to warn them:

"3 Let no man deceive you by any means: FOR that day will not be present, if not shall have come THE departure *FIRST* and the man of sin be revealed..."

<--the TWO items that would have been "seen/actualized," if what they were being told by those purporting/alleging this to them v.2 had actually been true: that "that day" is already here, supposedly [according to the false conveyors] already unfolding in their present experience at that time)...

So you've presented verse 3, spelled out, but what "day" is this verse 3 speaking of, according to your understanding of the text/context? What would the Thessalonians have known, about this Subject that Paul is writing to them about... what "day" were these false conveyors "purporting/alleging" to them about, as being supposedly "already here" ??

Paul is talking about the return of Christ and our being gathered to Him:

1Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,

He refers to the coming of Christ/gatgering as the day of Christ because on some unknown future day Christ will come.

2That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

The day of Christ will not come until two conditions are met first.

3Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

In summary, the day of Christ and our gathering to Him will not come unless there is a falling away first and a man of sin revealed.

What were they shaken in mind or troubled about? The deceivers were saying the day of Christ is at hand. They probably thought they missed the gathering to Christ.

Paul is saying they didn't miss the gathering to Christ because the day of Christ is not at hand. They can rest their minds now.

The really important bit for our discussion is that we know the man of sin is the anti-Christ. The anti-Christ appears during the great tribulation. We agree on that much right?

So if the day of Christ (and our gathering to Him) does not come until after the anti-Christ is revealed then how do you propose a pre-tribulation gathering to Christ?