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Part two of post
I still think it is a problem with interpretation. Most Christians agree with the biblical teachings on the wife being in submission to the husband as to authority. So culturally we are still on board with that even if modern Feminism hates such phrases.
And this was what Paul was talking about in 1 Tim 2:12. Wife submitting to husband.
Anyone can see that when reading 1 Per 3:3 3Whose adorning let it not be that outward adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel;
And 2 Tim 2:11-12 9In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array;
And then compare the fuller context of 1 Peter 3: 1-7 with 2 Tim 2:9-14 It is very obvious that it is talking about the wife being in subjection to the husband and I don't think anyone is arguing against that based on modern culture vs ancient Jewish culture or Ancient Near East Culture.
Therefore the problem is that bad interpretations throughout church history used this verse to say that Paul said a woman can't teach in the pulpit to men as this would be usurping authority over them. This is a bad interpretation. It is not usurping authority over anyone to teach the Bible.
Leaving 1 Tim 2:12 aside for a moment and we have heard 1 Tim 3 used to say that a pastor must be married. I don't think that is the the majority interpretation throughout church history. I suppose someone will correct me if I am wrong but I think that the majority interpretation is that "IF" he is married then only to one wife. This interpretation goes back as far as any other in church history writings. To say that it is an excuse used to explain modern culture does not work as it appears as far back as one searches in writings on these verses.
So it is a matter of interpretation not culture. We are not trying to teach that a wife should not be in subjection to her own husband.
It is true that culturally women have been oppressed in ancient times, in the Near East and in Israel by those who were hard hearted and carnal but not because of anything that the Bible teaches. There is nothing in the bible that oppressed women. Men did that on their own. We don't need to reinterpret the scripture to fit our culture.
Howbeit we don't send slaves back to their owners so we do understand that what Paul said then is not to be literally done today but the spiritual truth of paying a brothers debt and encouraging a debtor to give him is freedom might apply in some way you find yourself in. Y
ou would not use "husband of one wife" as a ban on women elders simply because Paul was assuming it would be a man/husband because of the culture. This is quite different than saying that culture mandates interpretation change. His advice still stands as it relates to blamelessness and not practicing polygamy. I don't think he was trying to make a point of gender but rather of blamelessness and assuming it would be a man that would be appointed by Timothy not specifically was he saying "don't appoint a woman" it was not necessary to say it because it was probably too uncommon to mention.
The only people who believe that Paul said that a pastor has to be married are those who have been taught that is what he meant in 1 tim and titus. Someone who reads it alone without outside influence would think he meant "If" he is married, then only ONE wife. Because Paul had already been very verbose about the value of being like himself single. It is not possible that Paul would tell someone it is better to remain single if you can do so for undistracted devotion to the affairs of the Lord and not apply that same logic to a pastor. IMPOSSIBLE.