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I have already shown it using a picture you may have missed out, with the scriptural references
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Whether or not you want to read those scriptural references and how you want to interpret them to fit your axiom, is beyond my control.
Please don't claim, however, that no one has tried to show you "where Paul, Peter, or James preached different gospels"
View attachment 225881
Whether or not you want to read those scriptural references and how you want to interpret them to fit your axiom, is beyond my control.
Please don't claim, however, that no one has tried to show you "where Paul, Peter, or James preached different gospels"
I'll merely point out one thing from it that is a common ploy among Judaizers.
Under the "Gospel of the Circumcision", you conveniently listed (I know that you didn't make the chart, but you agree with it, so you're just as guilty) a bunch of scriptural references from Matthew's gospel which speak of "the kingdom of heaven".
As I said earlier, this is a common ploy among Judaizers who would have us to believe that Matthew's gospel was written exclusively to the Jews, and he therefore allegedly used the terminology of "kingdom of heaven" as opposed to "kingdom of God".
Here's the problem, though.
A lot of us aren't stupid.
In other words, we know that Matthew ALSO USED the terminology of "kingdom of God" in his gospel (Matt. 6:33, 12:28, 19:24, 21:31, 43), as did Mark, Luke, and John in their gospel accounts.
With this reality before us, how is Paul's usage of "kingdom of God" in his epistles any different than Jesus' usage of the same in all four gospels?
There is no difference, so what are you going on about?
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