Apparently, you haven't done your homework on this passage. The word "man" is not there; the Greek says, "anyone". In fact, "husband" and "wife" in verse 2 are the only gender-specific words in the entire passage, and given other relevant passages, it is clear that the verse is forbidding polygamists, not females or unmarried men.
There isn't a single passage of Scripture that forbids women from being pastors.
You are hilarious!!!! YOU reject the Greek original grammer when shown to you concerning the "PERFECT" and also the "THEM" in Mark 16, but now you all of a sudden pull the Greek out of a hat when it suits you.
Just asking.....not argueing.
Timothy 3:1-3 KJV .........
"This is a true saying, If a
MAN desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. A bishop then must be blameless, the
HUSBAND of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach."
When you propose "anyone". you should also be aware that it does not mean "any person."
Though this particular word in the original Greek is in a neuter (genderless) form, the following verses
CONTEXTUALLY specify that only men could serve as Bishops. All of the following pronouns in this section are specifically male, with qualifications including the husband of one wife (1 Timothy 3:2) and managing his own household (1 Timothy 3:4).
“A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent” (
1 Timothy 2:11–12)
Verse 11 says, “Let a woman quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness.”
The Greek adversative “de” (“but” in English) links verse 12 back to 11. Paul wants women to learn in the entire submissiveness.
Some even say that the Greek words “gyne” (woman) and “andros” (man) mean wife and husband. This would render the verse as, “But I do not allow a wife to teach or exercise authority over a husband, but to remain quiet.” (
1 Tim. 2:12). Supporters of this argument then conclude that this would not prevent a woman from being a pastor since this is not speaking of women in general but only wives in relation to their husbands.
Is this argument sound? No, it isn’t.
WHY????
If a wife were a pastor and her husband were in the congregation, then when she taught, she’d be teaching her husband. This can’t work–unless the husband has to leave the church each time his wife teaches. Ridiculous? You bet!
In all of the 17 English translations of the Bible I have (Darby, ASV, ESV, HCSB, ISV, KJV, NASB95, NASB, NCV, NIV, NKJV, NLT, NRSV, WUESTNT, RSV, GNB, WorrelNT, YLT), none translate the verse as wife and husband, so why do people assert that it is about a husband and wife?
Thank you for the post and as w=always I hope that I have been able to help your understanding.
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