that is not correct in your understanding Just so you know RCC were not the only Charismatics. Lutheran, Episcopal Churches.
pentecostal did not influence RCC LOL.
Jesus sent them out two by two and they came back rejoicing that even demons were subject to them. Jesus said don't rejoice that demon are subject to you but that your names are written. Read it in Luke.
IF they were able to do so then why did Jesus tell them to wait until you receive power from on high? they all ready displayed the ability to heal before the death and resurrection of Jesus why? answer that please.
When they were sent to heal the sick they were told to say that the kingdom of God has come nigh unto you. Also they were told that they were given power over the enemy. Therefore the purpose of these healings and casting out demons demonstrated that the Kingdom of God was here and that Jesus had authority over the kingdom of darkness and that He has given us authority in His Name.That was then when God's Word was being delivered.
But now all of God's Word has been delivered.
And so these are the questions:
Do we need any more miracles?
Are not the miracles recorded in God's Word sufficient?
Or do we need more miracles and new miracles in order to believe?
The answers to those questions depends entirely on your idea of the reason for miracles in the first place. If you think that God's entire purpose was authenticating Himself, or His servants, then there likely would not be any more. However, if you believe that God's purpose was not merely to authenticate someone, then more miracles are possible. As for "needing" more miracles to believe, no, the Scripture is sufficient. However, that does not preclude God working in the lives of His people (or even among unbelievers) for other purposes.That was then when God's Word was being delivered.
But now all of God's Word has been delivered.
And so these are the questions:
Do we need any more miracles?
Are not the miracles recorded in God's Word sufficient?
Or do we need more miracles and new miracles in order to believe?
Unknown tongues the unknown is supplied. Use what ever translation you like if they are true to the original text they will either omit the unknown or put it in italicized type.That's a total straw man. I just happened to pull up the KJV. The addition of 'unknown' in the KJV text has nothing to do with the point I was making. I could have chosen any number of translations and made the same point.
Paul did not say he prayed in tongues. For if I pray is not I pray in tongues. Especially when he goes on to specify that he prays in the Spirit and with understanding. Praying in the Spirit is not praying in tongues as some have asserted.You'll notice I made my point by quoting scripture (the KJV translation in this case) and putting certain words in bold.
Yeah rightYet he did not make your point either.
Wrong conclusion. God operates on a simple methodology. Knowledge attained from study of His word. Understanding gained from study of the word of God. Wisdom produced from knowledge and understanding of the word of God. The Holy Spirit's ministry is to lead us into the truth of Gods word. We are sanctified by the truth of Gods word.I Corinthians 14 is clear that edifying oneself through speaking in tongues is permissible and desirable because, after pointing out that he who speaks in tongues edifies himself, Paul writes, I would that ye all spake with tongues. He is also clear that edifying the church is superior to edifying oneself. Do you think Paul disagrees with your interpretation of the passage about Christ's temptation in the wilderness?
You have got to be willfully blind to say something like this.Paul did not say he prayed in tongues. For if I pray is not I pray in tongues. Especially when he goes on to specify that he prays in the Spirit and with understanding. Praying in the Spirit is not praying in tongues as some have asserted.
Compounded errors do make for correct doctrine. I'm just reading what is written and not adding to it any quasi doctrine.You have got to be willfully blind to say something like this.
Thank you for clarifying the matter; your version of it, at least.Compounded errors do make for correct doctrine.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
The Holy Spirit fell on all those gathered in the upper room. No worries though. We have come to understand that you do not see women on equal footing with God.
You are in denial of what is revealed in the Bible.
2 When the day of Pentecost came, they were all together in one place. 2 Suddenly a sound like the blowing of a violent wind came from heaven and filled the whole house where they were sitting. 3 They saw what seemed to be tongues of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them. 4 All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them.
So unless you believe no women were present in that room on that day, then you must agree that women also received the gift of the Holy Spirit AND spoke in tongues.
Compounded errors do make for correct doctrine. I'm just reading what is written and not adding to it any quasi doctrine.
You are judging me as blind yet it is you that takes great liberty in corrupting the word of God.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
The opposite is true. You have decided that women cannot even pray, let alone speak in tongues. You either add or subtract from scripture to try to change what is being said, to what you want it to say, which, is some weak watered down man made concept of the Eternal God.
No I did not LOl read what i said in context don't cherry pick I can't take you seriously if you do that.
You have made unwarranted assumptions about me, supported those who have insulted me, and ignored me when I have corrected you with Scripture. Since you have the problem, you can own it.
Scripture states that if there is no interpreter in the church, the believer is to speak in tongues silently to God.
1 Corinthians 14:27-28 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
Why do you presume I do not know what is stated 1 Cor 14:23?
So you do agree that 1 Cor 14:2 states the believer who speaks in tongues speaks to God?
For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God
LOL hahaha " Paul did not pray in Tongues" Paul said in 1cor 14: 18
Paul said " I (Paul) thank my God I (Paul) in speak with tongues more than you all;
That was a literal. Jesus of course did not make bread out of rocks we responded to the devil's temptation with the word of God. The context has nothing to do with 1cor chapters 12 through 14. You are being foolish. You're hatred for those who have the empowering of the Holy Spirit is very telling. You will pull stupidity out of thin air. lol.
yes, I understand that.
I merely replied to Major who indicated that speaking in tongues was gibberish (see his post #546).
While speaking in tongues may sound like gibberish to some, speaking in tongues is not speaking gibberish to God. 1 Cor 14:2 indicates the believer speaks to God and, indeed, in the spirit the believer speaks mysteries. You know this and I know this.
And, yes, I also understand that when the congregation comes together in the church, and speaking in tongues is proper, decent and in order, then interpretation of tongues is to follow.
Thanks for bringing clarification to that aspect where speaking in tongues in the church congregation is to be followed by interpretation of tongues.
Absolutely, yes I do.
Compounded errors do make for correct doctrine. I'm just reading what is written and not adding to it any quasi doctrine.
You are judging me as blind yet it is you that takes great liberty in corrupting the word of God.
For the cause of Christ
Roger