So did you answer my last question on whether Acts 2:20 actually took place at anytime during Peter's life?
If you believe so, please provide evidence that the Day of the Lord had arrived.
I noticed I botched my quoting on the previous post(s).
What about the time of the indignation or the time of the wrath?
I say the 'time of the indignation' or the 'time of the wrath' is broken in two parts:
first part: was the old testament period between the time of the fall of adam and the time of Jesus of Nazareth. So this period has passed.
second part: The new testament period between Jesus of Nazareth and the very end. It seems you are referring to the very end as the "Day of the Lord".
So the Day of the Lord could refer to just the very end. Or "the end" could refer to the whole latter half of 'the time of wrath', which would be 1st century AD to the very end.
What I feel:
The Devil had wrath on God's people in the old testament era.
But then the Devil was defeated in 1st century AD
So the Devil, now defeated, has greater wrath on God's people in the new testament era (1st century AD and beyond).
Let us examine these two verses in two different translations.
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Daniel 8:19 ESV
He said, “Behold, I will make known to you what shall be at the latter end of the indignation, for it refers to the appointed time of the end.
Daniel 11:36 ESV
“And the king shall do as he wills. He shall exalt himself and magnify himself above every god, and shall speak astonishing things against the God of gods. He shall prosper till the indignation is accomplished; for what is decreed shall be done.
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Daniel 8:19 NIV
He said: "I am going to tell you what will happen later in the time of wrath, because the vision concerns the appointed time of the end.
Daniel 11:36 NIV
"The king will do as he pleases. He will exalt and magnify himself above every god and will say unheard-of things against the God of gods. He will be successful until the time of wrath is completed, for what has been determined must take place.
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