Favourite Bible Translations

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eternally-gratefull said:
if a person does not understand the word. They have no capacity to understand what is being said.
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The beautiful thing about the KJV is it defines itself through the first mention principle. When a word or phrase is first mentioned, the KJV defines it through context.
 
eternally-gratefull said:
So when John finished writing revelations. The word was not perfect yet God for whatever reason wanted man to wait 16 centuries until he would perfect his love letter to the world.

wow man, like wow.
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Perfect? Yes. Completed in a book in all the same language? Nope.
 
John146 said:
The beautiful thing about the KJV is it defines itself through the first mention principle. When a word or phrase is first mentioned, the KJV defines it through context.
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Wrong and wrong

this strawman view is not founded on any true principle

if a person does not understand a word context is not going to help them

when the Bible says we have been baptized into Christ. By the word alone, context will not let the reader know if it is water baptism (found by looking in the English dictionary) or if it is the person who is placed into Christ by God himself ( by using the Greek word)

again, that argument would be null and void if the authors of the KJV interpreted the word instead of transliterate the word to make a new word, which has been thoroughly misrepresented,
 
Dino246 said:
AS IS THE CASE WITH EVERY TRANSLATION.

Goodness, does your ignorance know no bounds?
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Totally false statement. The new versions do not define it's words and then consistently use that same word in context throughout. Most use different ways to convey the thought which is no way to study.
 
John146 said:
Perfect? Yes. Completed in a book in all the same language? Nope.
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Actually yeah, at this time there was a completed Greek bible, and in reality, a completed hebrew version also,

you should study history more
 
John146 said:
Totally false statement. The new versions do not define it's words and then consistently use that same word in context throughout. Most use different ways to convey the thought which is no way to study.
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Just like the KJV does, which has been proven in here, how the same Greek word is interpreted using varying English words,
 
eternally-gratefull said:
Wrong and wrong

this strawman view is not founded on any true principle

if a person does not understand a word context is not going to help them

when the Bible says we have been baptized into Christ. By the word alone, context will not let the reader know if it is water baptism (found by looking in the English dictionary) or if it is the person who is placed into Christ by God himself ( by using the Greek word)

again, that argument would be null and void if the authors of the KJV interpreted the word instead of transliterate the word to make a new word, which has been thoroughly misrepresented,
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I disagree. For example, the first mention of someone being baptized is in Matthew 3, being baptized in water, placed into water. If one is baptized into Christ, the one is placed into Christ, not water.
 
Dino246 said:
Prove it with evidence.
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The first mention of the word "grace" is found in Genesis 6, "But Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord." Most new versions use the word favor instead of grace. One would not understand, just through reading the bible, that God showed Noah grace and therefore saved him aboard the ark. The connection with saving grace is lost.
 
John146 said:
I disagree. For example, the first mention of someone being baptized is in Matthew 3, being baptized in water, placed into water. If one is baptized into Christ, the one is placed into Christ, not water.
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Not if you do not understand the word. And then try to look it up in the dictionary,

most people, even christians, think everytime they see the word baptize it automatically means water

if they properly translated the word, that would not be an issue, because the word baptized would not have to be interpreted by an English dictionary. There would be no question
 
John146 said:
The first mention of the word "grace" is found in Genesis 6, "But Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord." Most new versions use the word favor instead of grace. One would not understand, just through reading the bible, that God showed Noah grace and therefore saved him aboard the ark. The connection with saving grace is lost.
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Actually grace is favor, grace is another one of those words which most modern day people do not use, yet favor, that resonates with many as a word they understand

grace = favor, so there is really no issue in whatever word you use
 
eternally-gratefull said:
Not if you do not understand the word. And then try to look it up in the dictionary,
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In the first mention context, it specifically states that he was baptized in the water and came up out of the water. Through the context, one could understand that being baptized is going into something whether it's water or some other thing.
 
eternally-gratefull said:
Actually grace is favor, grace is another one of those words which most modern day people do not use, yet favor, that resonates with many as a word they understand

grace = favor, so there is really no issue in whatever word you use
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Well, how would one know by reading the words of the text? This is exactly my point. The new versions use different words. To properly study Scripture, one should compare Scripture with Scripture.
 
John146 said:
In the first mention context, it specifically states that he was baptized in the water and came up out of the water. Through the context, one could understand that being baptized is going into something whether it's water or some other thing.
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Tell that to the laymen who tries not to assume anything, but looks up words to try to see what is being said.

and also tell that to all the water baptismal regeneration people who believe water baptism is required for salvation, all because of a word that was never translated. But one that was made up.

God did not inspire the KJV authors to transliterate a word instead of translate it. Especially when there was no need to unless you believed something and wanted to keep that belief possible
 
John146 said:
Well, how would one know by reading the words of the text? This is exactly my point. The new versions use different words. To properly study Scripture, one should compare Scripture with Scripture.
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How?

so I see grace in these translation, yet have no understanding of what grace is so really can not understand it with out further study

then see favor in another translation, and understand it because I know the word and need no further study to understand what was said
 
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