What is the difference between "Israel only" and if something in ONLY for Israel, then gentiles are not Israel so it is not for them.
Of course, when the nations reject the Lord, until they accept Him they are outside of the training God is offering Israel. They are always welcomed into being God's children, but it is their choice.
I've read your responses to others, and what I see frequently is you using terms different than what they use. That is just baffling, and I honestly wonder why you do it. I think it only results in
your confusion.
I say that God gave the law to Israel, and you say that God "excluded" the gentiles. That's not what I said, nor what I meant. There is a big difference between "God did not give the law to gentiles" and "God excluded the gentiles". Can you see the distinction?
In your post above, you said, "the training God is offering Israel". God didn't "offer training" to Israel; He gave them LAW. Calling it "training" and "offered" completely eviscerates the whole concept. God chose
Israel, and made a covenant
with Israel, and gave the law
to Israel. He did not choose the gentiles, He did not make a covenant with the gentiles, and He did not give the law to the gentiles.
HOWEVER... He DID plan to include gentiles
through Christ, but
not through the law!
Further, the old covenant is
not the entire old testament. Nobody is advocating the removal of Psalms or any other book, but what they are advocating is the proper division of the Bible into that which was written
to Israel and that which was written to everyone.