Favourite Bible Translations
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i agree they are giving two distinctly different impressions.
i am sure this has been discussed here in the BDF many times and both you & @Dino246 have been part of those threads -- with the conclusion being that the tense of the verb in 1 John 3:9 is a Greek language nuance that English doesn't have, making a distinction not only between past/present/future but also between simple, completed actions and actions that are ongoing. in both cases of the word root 'to sin' here in this verse, the verb is present-active, which is the current time and an ongoing activity, as opposed to a one-time action that is has a distinct beginning & end in time. so that the actual language John used here indicates the translation 'practices sin' more accurately conveys the meaning and 'commit sin' is potentially misleading.
reading a KJV without this knowledge it's my opinion you ought to be able to come to the same conclusion that the NASB makes plain; in the very same letter, just a few sentences previously, 1 John 1:8-9 & 2:1-2 in KJV make it clear that Christians do in fact sin and don't cease to become born of God because of their weakness. how else does James 5:16 exist? Hebrews 7:25, Romans 8:34, Proverbs 24:16, 2 Corinthians 12:9?
not that we are Greek scholars, but the people who actually are, who have participated in these types of threads, have said these things about the language of 1 John 3:9 to us in our hearing, impartial resources i have looked up seem to confirm it, and i haven't heard any convincing arguments to the contrary - that is, arguments that address the text itself rather than other arguments about the superiority of the KJV over the manuscripts it was translated from.
i'm typing all this hoping we can move on from re-hashing the same conversations. obviously new people move in and out of the forum and discussions have good reason to be repeated, but you & Dino surely have already had or have both read the same 1 John 3:9 back-and-forth at least once over the last few years here, right?
i am sure this has been discussed here in the BDF many times and both you & @Dino246 have been part of those threads -- with the conclusion being that the tense of the verb in 1 John 3:9 is a Greek language nuance that English doesn't have, making a distinction not only between past/present/future but also between simple, completed actions and actions that are ongoing. in both cases of the word root 'to sin' here in this verse, the verb is present-active, which is the current time and an ongoing activity, as opposed to a one-time action that is has a distinct beginning & end in time. so that the actual language John used here indicates the translation 'practices sin' more accurately conveys the meaning and 'commit sin' is potentially misleading.
reading a KJV without this knowledge it's my opinion you ought to be able to come to the same conclusion that the NASB makes plain; in the very same letter, just a few sentences previously, 1 John 1:8-9 & 2:1-2 in KJV make it clear that Christians do in fact sin and don't cease to become born of God because of their weakness. how else does James 5:16 exist? Hebrews 7:25, Romans 8:34, Proverbs 24:16, 2 Corinthians 12:9?
not that we are Greek scholars, but the people who actually are, who have participated in these types of threads, have said these things about the language of 1 John 3:9 to us in our hearing, impartial resources i have looked up seem to confirm it, and i haven't heard any convincing arguments to the contrary - that is, arguments that address the text itself rather than other arguments about the superiority of the KJV over the manuscripts it was translated from.
i'm typing all this hoping we can move on from re-hashing the same conversations. obviously new people move in and out of the forum and discussions have good reason to be repeated, but you & Dino surely have already had or have both read the same 1 John 3:9 back-and-forth at least once over the last few years here, right?
so you're saying we shouldn't make translations at all, but we should all learn to read the scripture in the language it was written?
that's understandable. it's a common among Muslims to say the Koran really needs to be read in Arabic, in fact, many people look down on translations being made of it in the first place, recognizing that the work of translating between languages necessarily adds and/or takes away from the original text.
that's understandable. it's a common among Muslims to say the Koran really needs to be read in Arabic, in fact, many people look down on translations being made of it in the first place, recognizing that the work of translating between languages necessarily adds and/or takes away from the original text.
What's that, the original NASB or a Revised NASB?
It's screwed up too because it's got "his seed" capitalized like the seed is God. The seed is the mans own seed not God. And that's another place that COULD help a person understand what the devil REALLY is.
Now go ahead and accuse me of "you say it shouldn't be capitalize because the KJV doesn't capitalize it". That has absolutely nothing to do with why I KNOW it shouldn't be capitalized.
It's screwed up too because it's got "his seed" capitalized like the seed is God. The seed is the mans own seed not God. And that's another place that COULD help a person understand what the devil REALLY is.
Now go ahead and accuse me of "you say it shouldn't be capitalize because the KJV doesn't capitalize it". That has absolutely nothing to do with why I KNOW it shouldn't be capitalized.
yes, and in Revelation it's specifically 'the words of this prophecy' in context.
similarly here, tho 'take away' isn't said, the subject is the words of God --
similarly here, tho 'take away' isn't said, the subject is the words of God --
Every word of God is pure: He is a shield to those that trust in Him.
Put nothing unto His words, lest He reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
(Proverbs 30:5-6, 1599 GNV)
Put nothing unto His words, lest He reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
(Proverbs 30:5-6, 1599 GNV)
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no mate, when it says "His seed abides in him" it's saying God's seed abides in him.
it makes no sense to say man cannot practice sin because man's own seed is in man.
i like the way the NASB & NKJV make it a point to capitalize pronouns that reference the LORD; that's one of the primary reasons that when i quote scripture here in the forum it's NKJV more often than not. when i quote something like KJV i go back and "fix" the capitalization myself.
it makes no sense to say man cannot practice sin because man's own seed is in man.
i like the way the NASB & NKJV make it a point to capitalize pronouns that reference the LORD; that's one of the primary reasons that when i quote scripture here in the forum it's NKJV more often than not. when i quote something like KJV i go back and "fix" the capitalization myself.
1Jn 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
The seed is the serpent seed, human DNA, the flesh. The son of God destroys the WORKS of the flesh but THE SERPENT SEED still remains in the man.
That which is born of God is the OPPOSITE of the flesh, it CAN NOT SIN.
1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
The seed is the serpent seed, human DNA, the flesh. The son of God destroys the WORKS of the flesh but THE SERPENT SEED still remains in the man.
That which is born of God is the OPPOSITE of the flesh, it CAN NOT SIN.
Because Christ destroyed the works of the flesh. We are not under the law of the flesh any more. All things are lawful for us how can we sin when there is no law against anything we do? I don't know how to explain it any more than that. Yes we still commit sins but it's not sin because there is no law.