Favourite Bible Translations
- Thread starter true_believer
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
You state that the translators did not resort to using Latin texts, but I don't think that is accurate. Below is an article on the use of Latin as one of the text used for the KJV.
"Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also," (1 John 2:23, KJV).
This reading had been present in the two previous authorized version, the Great Bible and the Bishop's Bible, but always in brackets and smaller print to show that these words were lacking in the Greek text. The original KJV of 1611 likewise marked the text. It was a reading they found only in the Latin. Subsequent manuscript discoveries, however, have actually vindicated the KJV translators in this place, and every modern version agrees with the KJV here. While the majority of Greek manuscripts lack the second half of the verse, all of the earliestmanuscripts contain the longer form. So, in this case, the KJV translators' choice to follow the Latin over the Greek proved to be a solid deduction. That is, however, not always the case, as we saw in the KJV's following Beza in adopting the Latin reading at Luke 2:22, which is demonstrably incorrect. The point here is simply that, right or wrong, the KJV translators on some occasions chose to follow the Latin text against all of the available Greek texts. Frederick Schrivner, a scholar who carefully determined which Greek reading was behind each verse of the KJV (and thus created the form of the TR published and sold today), wrote that:
"in some places the Authorized Version [i.e., the KJV] corresponds but loosely with any form of the Greek original, while it exactly follows the Latin Vulgate."1
Thus, in addition to the handful of mostly late Greek manuscripts which lie behind the KJV, the Latin Vulgate is also a source which they took into account and at times relied upon when they thought it best.
- From the beginning, some of the readings that became a lasting part of the TR tradition were Erasmus' translations from the Latin in places where he had no Greek text.
- Stephanus introduced the Complutensian readings into his marginal notes, which were chosen by the Spanish scholars based, in part, on their assumption of the superiority of the Latin text.
- Theodore Beza occasionally reconstructed texts to accord with the Latin rather than the Greek when the Latin reading made more sense to him
"Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also," (1 John 2:23, KJV).
This reading had been present in the two previous authorized version, the Great Bible and the Bishop's Bible, but always in brackets and smaller print to show that these words were lacking in the Greek text. The original KJV of 1611 likewise marked the text. It was a reading they found only in the Latin. Subsequent manuscript discoveries, however, have actually vindicated the KJV translators in this place, and every modern version agrees with the KJV here. While the majority of Greek manuscripts lack the second half of the verse, all of the earliestmanuscripts contain the longer form. So, in this case, the KJV translators' choice to follow the Latin over the Greek proved to be a solid deduction. That is, however, not always the case, as we saw in the KJV's following Beza in adopting the Latin reading at Luke 2:22, which is demonstrably incorrect. The point here is simply that, right or wrong, the KJV translators on some occasions chose to follow the Latin text against all of the available Greek texts. Frederick Schrivner, a scholar who carefully determined which Greek reading was behind each verse of the KJV (and thus created the form of the TR published and sold today), wrote that:
"in some places the Authorized Version [i.e., the KJV] corresponds but loosely with any form of the Greek original, while it exactly follows the Latin Vulgate."1
Thus, in addition to the handful of mostly late Greek manuscripts which lie behind the KJV, the Latin Vulgate is also a source which they took into account and at times relied upon when they thought it best.
No I have not , I said the Holy Spirit has not told you to stick only to the KJV , that idea must of come from someone who told you that...
Nothing wrong whatsoever with you reading the KJV , just like there is nothing wrong with others reading their bibles ...
That is an awful claim you made against me , it is false , truly false...
Nothing wrong whatsoever with you reading the KJV , just like there is nothing wrong with others reading their bibles ...
That is an awful claim you made against me , it is false , truly false...
Cleared up.
The new NASB is a revised version of the NASB 1995 & uses italics for implied meanings.
The Amplified Bible does this too. There is nothing sinister intended & nothing is hidden.
"In the NASB, italics are used to communicate to the reader words that are not found in the original language, but are implied in the original language or are needed for a complete thought in English."
1 John 3 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
9 No one who has been born of God practices sin, because His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin continually, because he has been born of God.
1 John 3 New American Standard Bible 1995 (NASB1995)
9 No one who is [d]born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is [e]born of God.
The new NASB is a revised version of the NASB 1995 & uses italics for implied meanings.
The Amplified Bible does this too. There is nothing sinister intended & nothing is hidden.
"In the NASB, italics are used to communicate to the reader words that are not found in the original language, but are implied in the original language or are needed for a complete thought in English."
1 John 3 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
9 No one who has been born of God practices sin, because His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin continually, because he has been born of God.
1 John 3 New American Standard Bible 1995 (NASB1995)
9 No one who is [d]born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is [e]born of God.
-
1
- Show all
