Exactly, you have to STUDY the word in order to rightly divide it.
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Well web isn't just silk from a spider's abdomen in the 21st century.
Fallacy: circular reasoning.
I have refuted the claim of evidence by word or number patterns several times; I'm surprised you repeat it.
1Pe 1:24 For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away:
1Pe 1:25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.
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You are not able to discuss it because you refuse to examine the source documents or consider the arguments of those who do. It is just "anyone who questions the KJV is denying the Inspired infallible Word of God" rhetoric and there you shall remain.
No need to act like you have a scholarly answer for your blind fanaticism. Just admit your blindly fanatical about the KJV and be done with the conversation.
Maybe it was grand conspiracy by the KJV translators to make that happen I guess. I rather think God led them to do it.
Well you think you would have less change in a few hundred years than you would in 2000 years. At least in English we're not constantly going to James Strong's opinion of what a word means.
I fully understand my KJV, no need to lower the standards, to meet the english language in modern decay
Of course the liberals are trying to change the meanings of words, nothing new, smiles!
The Ten Commandments In Ebonics
- I be God. Don' be dissing me.
- Don' be makin hood ornaments outa me or nothin in my crib.
- Don' be callin me for no reason - homey don' play that.
- Y'all betta be in church on Sundee.
- Don' dis ya mama ... an if ya know who ya daddy is, don' dis him neither.
- Don' ice ya bros.
- Stick to ya own woman.
- Don' be liftin no goods.
- Don' be frontin like you all that an no snitchin on ya homies.
- Don' be eyein' ya homie's crib, ride, or nothin.
But they are not missing from the English bibles you are persecuting.
There is less than 5% difference between the two families of texts in the first place.
Most modern English translations either footnote or bracket certain words, phrases, sentences, and a couple of paragraphs.
Only those which are not found in all manuscripts. This is honest & truthful on the part of the translators.
They are not "missing". Rather their presence/absence in various manuscripts are explained.
It’s not a major concern. No one is trying to hide or eliminate anything. And there is no "corruption."
No one reading the NASB or NIV is unaware of them.
But you are still wilfully avoiding the line missing from the KJV with no explanation.
Seems you are in application of 2 Tim. 2;15 i.e. to "Study", however, I found faulty in your statement that there's a need to change the word. If you study as told then you can understand his words. But if you're diligent enough to change it that's sort a thing to change God's word.
I fully understand the argument
The Church used and received the Byzantine Textual Family that supports the KJV
The Church didnt use and receive the Alexandrian Textual Family, the 1%< Minority of Manuscript evidence
In 1881 Westcott & Hort didnt bring Gods truth, in their created GreekText, Using the Alexandrian Manusctipts
Nestle-Aland didnt bring Gods truth in their created Geek Text Using the Alexandrian Manusctipts
Simple, Byzantine Vs. Alexandrian
The verses mentioned in the NIV, ESV, are missing in the main body of the Text, they are mentioned in footnotes as being in (Other) Manuscripts/Texts
These verses are non-existent in the Greek text that supports these translations
To mention a verse in a footnote, dosent mean its included in the reading, sorry
Again, way off topic, so I won't go into details, but as a sort of overview, the so-called "list of nations" in verses 9-11 is just that; a list of geographical places. Specifically, the lands of the Diaspora (both Eastern and Western). It is not a list of languages. In fact, nowhere in the entire Pentecost narrative is even one language ever referenced by name, and nowhere does it imply that even though there were Jews from all over the Diaspora, that communication between them all was ever an issue to begin with.
One has to ask - if I were a Jew living in one of these places in the 1st century AD, what would be my native language, the language of "hearth and home", the language "wherein I was born"? Would it have ben a local language, or something else?
In a nutshell, the language of hearth and home for someone from the Western Diaspora was Greek. These countries had been Hellenized for centuries and Greek was beginning to be seen as an acceptable language for Judaism. For Judea, it was Aramaic, and for those of the eastern Diaspora....it was also Aramaic.
Though the Eastern Diasporan lands were never Hellenized, and each had its own language(s), they were never the language of 'hearth and home' for the Jews. The language of hearth and home, the language 'wherein they were born' was Aramaic. They of course spoke the local language in varying degrees of fluency, just like today's immigrants in the US do for English, but at home and amongst themselves it was Aramaic.
A lot of people, a lot of places, but for Jews amongst themselves, really only two languages: Greek and Aramaic, with Aramaic being by far the one most spoken.
Some of the vulgarity in the KJV is NOT appropriate to be verbalized in pulpits...
https://www.gotquestions.org/pisseth-against-the-wall.html
https://www.gotquestions.org/pisseth-against-the-wall.html
If you can't read a sentence because it's placed in brackets on a page you are already reading that would be your inadequacy.
Nothing is hidden.
Wrong! "Study" in the 16th century meant "to show". It doesn't mean "to observe or read" as in modern English.