Lordship salvation vs. "easy believism"
- Thread starter MyrtleTrees
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No one said it was plan b.
God knew that Israel would reject him from the beginning of time, and that gentiles would be saved thru the fall of Israel instead, but he hid it, until it was first revealed to Paul (Ephesians 3:9).
But just as Adam and Eve was given a legitimate choice to make in the garden, God had to give Israel that same choice, and they rejected by the time acts 28 came along.
God knew that Israel would reject him from the beginning of time, and that gentiles would be saved thru the fall of Israel instead, but he hid it, until it was first revealed to Paul (Ephesians 3:9).
But just as Adam and Eve was given a legitimate choice to make in the garden, God had to give Israel that same choice, and they rejected by the time acts 28 came along.
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Yes, but that doesn’t mean that passages like 1 Peter 5 are irrelevant to us though.
When someone answers a question with a New Testament citation, and the other says “that was written to Jews” as a refutation through claiming it is inapplicable to us, the second person is ignoring the fact that there is no distinction between the two in Christ and the church
When someone answers a question with a New Testament citation, and the other says “that was written to Jews” as a refutation through claiming it is inapplicable to us, the second person is ignoring the fact that there is no distinction between the two in Christ and the church
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I quoted 1 Peter 5 as teaching that Christ is shepherd to believers, and you replied “ Peter is writing to Jews”
That seems to imply that the passage does not apply to Gentiles, only to Jews.
So because Paul was writing to Gentiles in Ephesians 2, does that mean that Ephesians 2:8-10 doesn’t apply to Jews.
that would be a logical conclusion from your argument.
That seems to imply that the passage does not apply to Gentiles, only to Jews.
So because Paul was writing to Gentiles in Ephesians 2, does that mean that Ephesians 2:8-10 doesn’t apply to Jews.
that would be a logical conclusion from your argument.
1 peter unlike Ephesians is written to :
1¶Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
2Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
We should also recognise that the 'elect 'are always the Jews .
1¶Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
2Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
We should also recognise that the 'elect 'are always the Jews .