Lordship salvation vs. "easy believism"
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Where does it say ' gentiles ' ? especially as he is ...During His earthly ministry. Yet in John 10:16, Jesus Is speaking in future tense
24¶But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
We get that from 1 cor 15 .1-4
Part of Paul’s teaching is on how one is saved. The larger part is on life and how to live after salvation. In other words, called to believe and also called to be a disciple afterwards
Where does it say ' gentiles ' ? especially as he is ...
24¶But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Is Jesus speaking in present tense or future tense in John 10:16?
Where does it say ' gentiles ' ? especially as he is ...
24¶But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Read Isaiah. It might help your confusion.
My point is about how your trying to join the dots .Part of Paul’s teaching is on how one is saved. The larger part is on life and how to live after salvation. In other words, called to believe and also called to be a disciple afterwards
Isn't it great looking back?Read Isaiah. It might help your confusion.
Where does it say ' gentiles ' ? especially as he is ...
24¶But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
To the Jew first and also to the Greek.
The sheep that were the PRESENT fold in John 10:16 were Jewish believers. The sheep of the fold that He said would hear His voice IN THE FUTURE of John 10:16 were Gentiles. And they shall be one fold with one shepherd, THE CHURCH!!!
Who are the lost sheep Jesus Jesus only was sent for ? Who is it that Jesus only tells the diciples to go to ? JEWS . Thats why its 10 years after Acts 2 that see Peter and the disciples marvel that now the gentiles be granted in .Read Isaiah. It might help your confusion.
That's post hoc rationalization. Look how your adding to what is written? Trying to make it fit .To the Jew first and also to the Greek.
The sheep that were the PRESENT fold in John 10:16 were Jewish believers. The sheep of the fold that He said would hear His voice IN THE FUTURE of John 10:16 were Gentiles. And they shall be one fold with one shepherd, THE CHURCH!!!
To the Jew first and also to the Greek.
The sheep that were the PRESENT fold in John 10:16 were Jewish believers. The sheep of the fold that He said would hear His voice IN THE FUTURE of John 10:16 were Gentiles. And they shall be one fold with one shepherd, THE CHURCH!!!
Isn't it great looking back?
Two groups, one being called presently in John 10:16 and the other which will be brought in in the future of John 10:16 becoming One fold under one shepherd- the church which is both Jews and Gentiles. Easy
That's post hoc rationalization. Look how your adding to what is written? Trying to make it fit .
Are the verbs in John 10:16 present or future tense verbs? Please answer.
Who are the lost sheep Jesus Jesus only was sent for ? Who is it that Jesus only tells the diciples to go to ? JEWS . Thats why its 10 years after Acts 2 that see Peter and the disciples marvel that now the gentiles be granted in .
The events Jesus spoke of in John 10:16 are spoken as being future from that time.
Maybe this will help. The law was given for the purpose of bringing us to Christ. Now it would be to our advantage to obey what God tells us to do after we’re saved. So that we aren’t chastened of the lord. But obedience to the law hasn’t anything to do with salvation. (Romans 3:28)
Who are the lost sheep Jesus Jesus only was sent for ? Who is it that Jesus only tells the diciples to go to ? JEWS . Thats why its 10 years after Acts 2 that see Peter and the disciples marvel that now the gentiles be granted in .
John 10:16. All the verbs are future tense. Hadn’t begun to be fulfilled yet. If the verbs were in present or past tense you would have a valid argument
They’re not. So you don’t.
Exegesis 101. Interpret gramatically
You keep ignoring this point . His programme is only for ...24¶But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.Two groups, one being called presently in John 10:16 and the other which will be brought in in the future of John 10:16 becoming One fold under one shepherd- the church which is both Jews and Gentiles. Easy
Notice no gentile sheep .
That's why we have no reference to gentiles being sheep . Its as Jewish a term as it gets .
These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, GO NOT into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:John 10:16. All the verbs are future tense. Hadn’t begun to be fulfilled yet. If the verbs were in present or past tense you would have a valid argument
They’re not. So you don’t.
Exegesis 101. Interpret gramatically
John 10:16. All the verbs are future tense. Hadn’t begun to be fulfilled yet. If the verbs were in present or past tense you would have a valid argument
They’re not. So you don’t.
Exegesis 101. Interpret gramatically
Except the first one.
Except the first one.
Them also must I bring. (Future)
They shall hear my voice. ( future)
They shall be one flock. ( future).
How many flocks does Jesus have?
Flock , Fold , Sheep , Shepherd, = always ISRAEL . You will not find these terms outside of a Jewish context. This is western ' me ' centered thinking being forced into the text .Them also must I bring. (Future)
They shall hear my voice. ( future)
They shall be one flock. ( future).