Shining Light on 1 Corinthians Chapter 15
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It is interesting that you would bring up the story of Naaman. Naaman was infected with leprosy. It is well known that leprosy is a picture of sin.
Naaman was given instructions from the man of God about how to be healed. He was told what to do and refused to accept it due to his pride. The instructions did not align with what he thought should be done. He's like a lot of people today. Fortunately he humbled himself and listened to his servant and followed the instructions given by the man of God. He was healed of his leprosy by immersing himself in the Jordon.
The story is a picture of what would later come about. Every NT believer would be required to obey the instruction given by the man of God; "...be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins..." (Acts 2:38)
Naaman was given instructions from the man of God about how to be healed. He was told what to do and refused to accept it due to his pride. The instructions did not align with what he thought should be done. He's like a lot of people today. Fortunately he humbled himself and listened to his servant and followed the instructions given by the man of God. He was healed of his leprosy by immersing himself in the Jordon.
The story is a picture of what would later come about. Every NT believer would be required to obey the instruction given by the man of God; "...be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins..." (Acts 2:38)
The FOR the remission of sins is not ' Your sins are remitted by water baptism ' But that by ISRAEL observing what was to identify to the baptism of John was to point to Jesus being the only proper basis for the remission of sins . Rom 3
25Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
Sins were paid for at the cross.
25Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
Sins were paid for at the cross.
The scripture states that Peter knew they had received the Holy Ghost because they were speaking in tongues. He didn't say they were saved. Your assumption that he knew they were saved at that moment is not reflected in the scriptures presented. If he believed receiving the Holy Ghost alone constituted their being saved there would be no need to command they be baptized. This truth is seen in what Peter preached on the Day of Pentecost, Philip preached to the Samaritans, and Paul peached to the Ephesus disciples, and other scriptures as well.
Your comment about withholding water baptism unless a person has the Holy Ghost is not scriptural. Those at Pentecost were told to repent, and get water baptized and they could expect to receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. All three components are consistently preached as being necessary. And the biblical record shows all three happening albeit in differing sequence.
Your comment about withholding water baptism unless a person has the Holy Ghost is not scriptural. Those at Pentecost were told to repent, and get water baptized and they could expect to receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. All three components are consistently preached as being necessary. And the biblical record shows all three happening albeit in differing sequence.
Maybe you forgot. I was responding to your comment about why righteousness was imputed to Abraham by God. The following scripture speaks directly to that. Discarding books of the bible that contradict one's understanding is not wise.
"But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
"But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
Evidently you are unaware that Peter's initial instructions to the Jews were later presented to the Samaritans by Philip, Peter, and John; the Gentiles by Peter; to Paul by Ananias; and the Ephesus disciples by Paul. And individual components of Peter's instructions are specifically spoken about throughout scripture.
In James 2:20, "faith without works is dead" does not mean that faith is dead until it produces works and then it becomes a living faith. That's like saying that a tree is dead until it produces fruit and then it becomes a living tree. James is simply saying faith that is not accompanied by evidential works demonstrates that it’s dead. If someone merely says-claims they have faith, but lack resulting evidential works, then they have an empty profession of faith/dead faith and not authentic faith. (James 2:14)
James 2:21, notice that James does not say that Abraham's work of offering up Isaac resulted in God accounting Abraham as righteous. The accounting of Abraham's faith as righteousness was made in Genesis 15:6, many years before his work of offering up Isaac recorded in Genesis 22. The work of Abraham did not have some kind of intrinsic merit to account him as righteous, but it showed or manifested the genuineness of his faith. That is the "sense" in which Abraham was "justified by works." He was shown to be righteous.
In James 2:22, faith made perfect or complete by works means bring to maturity, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. It doesn't mean that Abraham was finally saved based on merits of his works after he offered up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6.
In James 2:23, the scripture was fulfilled in vindicating or demonstrating that Abraham believed God and was accounted as righteous. Abraham was accounted as righteous based on his faith (Genesis 15:6) not his works (Romans 4:2-3) long before he offered up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22.
In James 2:24, James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is shown to be righteous. James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3). Works bear out the justification that already came by faith.
In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:
1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2. to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
In Matthew 12:37, we read - "For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned." This is because our words (and our works) reveal the condition of our hearts. Words/works are evidences for, or against a man being in a state of righteousness.
God is said to have been justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads, “acknowledged that God's way was right..” The ESV reads, "they declared God just.” That is the "sense" in which God was “justified.” He was shown to be righteous.
Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is justified/vindicated/shown to be right by her deeds.
James 2:21, notice that James does not say that Abraham's work of offering up Isaac resulted in God accounting Abraham as righteous. The accounting of Abraham's faith as righteousness was made in Genesis 15:6, many years before his work of offering up Isaac recorded in Genesis 22. The work of Abraham did not have some kind of intrinsic merit to account him as righteous, but it showed or manifested the genuineness of his faith. That is the "sense" in which Abraham was "justified by works." He was shown to be righteous.
In James 2:22, faith made perfect or complete by works means bring to maturity, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. It doesn't mean that Abraham was finally saved based on merits of his works after he offered up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6.
In James 2:23, the scripture was fulfilled in vindicating or demonstrating that Abraham believed God and was accounted as righteous. Abraham was accounted as righteous based on his faith (Genesis 15:6) not his works (Romans 4:2-3) long before he offered up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22.
In James 2:24, James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is shown to be righteous. James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3). Works bear out the justification that already came by faith.
In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:
1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2. to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
In Matthew 12:37, we read - "For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned." This is because our words (and our works) reveal the condition of our hearts. Words/works are evidences for, or against a man being in a state of righteousness.
God is said to have been justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads, “acknowledged that God's way was right..” The ESV reads, "they declared God just.” That is the "sense" in which God was “justified.” He was shown to be righteous.
Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is justified/vindicated/shown to be right by her deeds.
I have often heard Campbellites use the healing of Naaman when he dipped in the Jordan river 7 times as an example of receiving remission of sins in the waters of baptism. Yet in the first place, if being healed from leprosy is an illustration of salvation, we have another case that reveals one can be saved without any water. Read it in (Luke 5:12-15). No water is found here.
Second, Naaman was not even a believer until after dipping in Jordan. He said "NOW" (after being healed) I know that there is no God in all the earth, but in Israel," (2 Kings 5:15) and vowed to worship only Him (vs. 17). If we follow this "example," we will have to baptize unbelievers! Naaman received cleansing from leprosy (not eternal life) after he dipped in the Jordan 7 times, but no sins were literally remitted for Naaman in Jordan. Likewise, water baptism does not literally remit sins.
The Bible uses the experience of Naaman as illustrative of the SOVEREIGNTY OF GOD, not of salvation by water baptism. Naaman was a heathen, not a believer, and did not know God until the miracle occurred. The purpose of the miracle had nothing to do with salvation by H2O, but was to demonstrate "there is a prophet in Israel" (2 Kings 5:8) and that "there is no God in all the earth, but in Israel," as Naaman found out (2 Kings 5:15).
Second, Naaman was not even a believer until after dipping in Jordan. He said "NOW" (after being healed) I know that there is no God in all the earth, but in Israel," (2 Kings 5:15) and vowed to worship only Him (vs. 17). If we follow this "example," we will have to baptize unbelievers! Naaman received cleansing from leprosy (not eternal life) after he dipped in the Jordan 7 times, but no sins were literally remitted for Naaman in Jordan. Likewise, water baptism does not literally remit sins.
The Bible uses the experience of Naaman as illustrative of the SOVEREIGNTY OF GOD, not of salvation by water baptism. Naaman was a heathen, not a believer, and did not know God until the miracle occurred. The purpose of the miracle had nothing to do with salvation by H2O, but was to demonstrate "there is a prophet in Israel" (2 Kings 5:8) and that "there is no God in all the earth, but in Israel," as Naaman found out (2 Kings 5:15).
B
The scripture does that, I'd rather not, but being that Jesus said so, and the Apostles followed up with saying and doing so. I'll go with what they say rather than what I prefer.
I gave up worshipping myself and fearing the world around me. I traded that in for worshipping Jesus and fearing God. The only way I have for doing that is by doing it they way that is prescribed in the scriptures.
I gave up worshipping myself and fearing the world around me. I traded that in for worshipping Jesus and fearing God. The only way I have for doing that is by doing it they way that is prescribed in the scriptures.
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i believe Jesus was baptized in the same exact spot Naaman washed, and that this is also the spot where the borrowed axe head was lost and recovered when Elisha added a stick of wood to the water, and where Joshua & the Israelites crossed the Jordan.
Naaman was effectively being immersed into Christ through faith, saving him from death -- and so 'it is fitting' Christ was also baptized there by John. not because He had need of baptism, but to fulfill the prophecy of all these many types in the OT of Him who was to come.
is that weird?
Naaman was effectively being immersed into Christ through faith, saving him from death -- and so 'it is fitting' Christ was also baptized there by John. not because He had need of baptism, but to fulfill the prophecy of all these many types in the OT of Him who was to come.
is that weird?
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I would interpret all of the scriptures together on the subject as saying they were expected to have a confession of faith before being baptized. This confession of faith would be all that was required. This particular example with Cornelius house made Peter say im effect.. "we don't really need to inquire any further, they obviously have repented and have faith in Jesus by evidence of their speaking in tongues." We don't assume that they required people to speak in tongues before baptism. The fact that these did revealed they had faith. I think it also proves beyond any doubt that their being born again had already occurred. And of course most evangelicals understand this.