To Correctly Apply meaning to Christ's saying has been a cause of contention between learned theologians for centuries. My approach is much simpler. I believe his words and trust them to be God breathed and inspired. Who am I to second guess that which Christ means by His words.
I am not so selective. When the Christ speaks I listen.
A question that comes to mind, in view of what you've put ^ , is, do you believe Him where He had told His disciples (just before He would go to the Cross [die]),
in John 16:12-15, "
I have YET MANY THINGS to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit
when He, the Spirit of truth, is come, He will guide you
into all the truth [...] and He shall shew you the things coming [etc... the rest of those verses]" [
i.e. what we now have recorded in the rest of the scriptures following His death/resurrection/ascension/exaltation].
IOW, do we believe THAT is ALSO
"His Word" (having the same authority, being the
"word of Christ [/'the word of the Lord']," even though the words are not
'printed in red' ['verbalized by Jesus' during His earthly ministry when He walked this earth], so to speak)? For example, see what Paul had said in
Colossians 1:25, "of which I [Paul] became a minister
according to the administration [/stewardship] of God having been
given me toward you,
to complete [G4137 - plērōsai] the word of God". Do we believe He indeed had "more to say," and that this is also recorded via the
NT "apostles and prophets," and having equal authority (
as being FROM Christ also)??
Another example: [
quoting an old post in a different convo... see if you can distinguish between the passages I present below] -
Examine carefully Matthew 24:42,43, Matthew 25:13, Mark 13:33,34,35,[36],37, Luke 12:37,39 and Luke 21:36 [re: "watch"] of the Olivet Discourse+, and compare [/contrast] with the following:
How do you believe the above ^ jives with the following passage (
below: addressed TO/FOR/ABOUT "the Church
WHICH IS HIS BODY," i.e. all those saved "in this present age [singular]")
1 Thessalonians 5:6-10 [blb] - [explanation in brackets--
note how the SAME Grk words are in vv.6 and 10]
6 So then
we should not sleep [G2518 - katheudōmen] as the others,
but
we should watch [G1127 - grēgorōmen] and we should be sober.
7 For those sleeping, sleep by night; and those becoming drunk, get drunk by night.
8 But we being of the day should be sober, having put on the breastplate of faith and love,
and the helmet,
the hope of salvation [an
eschatalogical salvation, per context],
9 because God has not destined
us for wrath,
but for obtaining salvation through [/by means of] our Lord Jesus Christ,
10 the One having died for us,
so that whether we might watch [same Greek word as in verse 6! G1127 - grēgorōmen]
OR
[whether] we might sleep [same Greek word as in verse 6! G2518 - katheudōmen--NOT meaning 'death' here as the OTHER Greek word (G2837 - koimaó/koimōmenōn / koimēthentas ) does in the previous chpt! vv.13,14,15--distinct!],
we may live together
with [G4862 - syn - denoting '
UNION'-with/'IDENTIFICATION'-with] Him.
[note: THIS
"WITH [G4862]" word being distinct from the OTHER
"with [G3326]" word that is used of the "10 [or 5] Virgins [PLURAL]" who will "go in
with [G3326 - accompanying] Him to the wedding
FEAST/SUPPER" (i.e. the
EARTHLY MK age, commencing upon His RETURN
to the earth)]
IOW, this passage says,
"[Who died for us] that WHETHER we might WATCH *OR* we might sleep [meaning the same as those words in verse 6] we should live together WITH [G4862 - UNITED-with/IDENTIFIED-with] Him" (and as said in relation to the previous part of the sentence/context); which wording (overall)
is entirely distinct from that which we see in the gospels and in the Olivet Discourse [
the Olivet Discourse covering the Subject of what takes place FOLLOWING "our Rapture" (except for about 12 verses in Lk21 re: the 70ad events, vv.12-24a+)]
--So this is my question to you, as to how you see this ^ "jiving" with what you have put [(different convo)... re: the "watch" of the Olivet Discourse passages, and related verses speaking of the same time-slot... such as the
Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-44 "when he will
RETURN FROM the wedding" [as an ALREADY-WED "Bridegroom," at that point]...
THEN the meal [G347]... (i.e. their entrance into the promised and prophesied
EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom;
NOT "our Rapture" point in time)]
[end quoting that post]
____________
Do you have any thoughts as to how you might explain these distinctions?
[illustration: atheists, in their 'ignorance' (i don't intend to be offensive here
) simply say that the Bible has "contradictions," and therefore is
untrue and untrustworthy/unreliable, however, we know the truth and see it quite clearly... there is adequate explanation for all "
seeming" discrepancies
(we are to be "
correctly apportioning the word of truth" and are exhorted to "distinguish the things that differ"
)]
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