He did, but that was not known during John 10.
What was known was Matthew 15:24 and Romans 15:8
So sheep was and is symbol of Christian regardless Jews or gentile but people was think sheep is only Jews am I correct?
He did, but that was not known during John 10.
What was known was Matthew 15:24 and Romans 15:8
Pointed is not the same as commanded.
Commanded means Moses telling them "There will be man called Jesus who comes from Nazarene in the year 30AD. Obey him".
Pointed is when you need to pierce the various clues given, before coming to the realization that, "Hey Jesus was that promised prophet".
Both are your statement, wich one you believe?
So sheep was and is symbol of Christian regardless Jews or gentile but people was think sheep is only Jews am I correct?
John 10:11There was no Christianity in the 4 gospels. It was only Judaism then, so the term sheep cannot be referring to Christians.
John 10:11
New International Version
11 “I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep.
so sheep in this verse mean Jews, not Christians
Do you believe Jesus die only for Jews or for whosoever believe?
The gospels were about the messiah fulfilling the law. His primary audience was the Jewish men and women. Such as the bit about sacrifices. Jesus was setting the teachings of Moses straight and introducing aspects of the new covenant that was further lined out after his death and resurrection through his apostles.
He died for the whole world.
But his first coming was only for the lost sheep of the House of Israel (Matthew 15:24). No one then, not even Peter, expected Jesus to die for them at all.
So you believe Jesus die for all but john say Jesus die for sheep
You confusing me
You say sheep is jews
So Jesus die for His sheep mean Jesus die for Jews
Then you say Jesus die for all the world
John 10:11
New International Version
11 “I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep.
It was only after Israel rejected the Messiah for the final time by stoning Stephen, then Jesus's death on the cross meant something to the entire world.
We now understand that because we were born in this time period.
But as far as one who is born listening to Jesus in John 10, he would only think he died for Israel and the Jews only. That was what Satan thought too during Jesus first coming, that was why he was more than willing to ensure Jesus's death on the cross.
But he realized, too late, that Jesus death was not only for Israel, but it allow God to reconcile with the entire world of gentiles, thru the fall of Israel. That is the mystery revealed to Paul.
Read Romans 9-11 for all the details you need.
It was only after Israel rejected the Messiah for the final time by stoning Stephen, then Jesus's death on the cross meant something to the entire world.
We now understand that because we were born in this time period.
But as far as one who is born listening to Jesus in John 10, he would only think he died for Israel and the Jews only. That was what Satan thought too during Jesus first coming, that was why he was more than willing to ensure Jesus's death on the cross.
But he realized, too late, that Jesus death was not only for Israel, but it also allowed God to reconcile with the entire world of gentiles, thru the fall of Israel. That is the mystery revealed to Paul.
Read Romans 9-11 for all the details you need.
John 3:16
New International Version
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
Did Jesus say this verse after or before Jews reject Him
How about john 4 when Jesus talk to Samaritan woman in the well?
That verse has nothing to do with the death of Christ. Believe in Jesus there refers to believing he was sent as the Son of God (John 20:31).
God sent his son for the whole world, as the OT timetable would have stated, as well as what God promised Abraham in Genesis 22:18
He also mentioned to her that "salvation came from the Jews" so there is no contradiction. See my previous post
So as Son as Jesus say that verse and a gentile believe Hi, was he save?
John 3:16
New International Version
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
Did Jesus say this verse after or before Jews reject Him
I believe he would have ignored him, as he did with the Cannanite lady in Matthew 15, as well as with the Greeks in John 12:20-24.
His first coming was for the Jews. For Gentiles, we were without hope and cut off during his first coming, as Paul would explained in Ephesians 2:11-13
This verse was prophecy at the time. He must be lifted up first. And btw, Jesus was not God’s one and only son. God has many sobs. Jesus was the only begotten. You need a KJV to be correct.
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:
15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.
It's mean you have to add this verse was not for gentile now in john 3:16
The verse must say after Jews reject Me, whosoever believe in Me will be save.