By Works

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Chester said:
The text says he is saved. That is Peter's words and not mine.
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Is saved is in past tense

Scarcely be saved is not past tense, but future. Those were Peter words.

I don’t get it though, you already stated to me you believe in James 2, that faith without works is dead. Isn’t peter implying the same thing there?
 
throughfaith said:
Eph 4.30/ Eph 1.13
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Ephesians 1:13 and 4:30 give beautiful truths about the sealing of the Holy Spirit, but they do not state that once a person is saved in the church age that they will always be saved.

But this thread is not to debate OSAS, so I am not going to go further with this. There are plenty of other threads that address the subject directly. Of course I realize that in a discussion of faith and works the subject of OSAS will come up, and that is OK. But I don't want to get too far off the track of this thread . . .

My purpose for this thread is (from an earlier post):

The issue is that a faith without any works is a dead faith. Works are a blessing and a privilege, and not a burden or a requirement. They are not a separate package from faith and salvation, but are a key part of the whole process of being made free from a miserable life controlled by sin and the devil.
 
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throughfaith said:
No one in the OT was born again or sealed by the Holy Spirit. Nor will a person during the Tribulation. They will not be saved if they take the Mark of the beast . That's clear.
No one loses salvation in the church age till the rapture .
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No one loses Salvation period. If so, it is a works based gospel
 
Chester said:
Ephesians 1:13 and 4:30 give beautiful truths about the sealing of the Holy Spirit, but they do not state that once a person is saved in the church age that they will always be saved.

But this thread is not to debate OSAS, so I am not going to go further with this. There are plenty of other threads that address the subject directly. Of course I realize that in a discussion of faith and works the subject of OSAS will come up, and that is OK. But I don't want to get too far off the track of this thread . . .

My purpose for this thread is (from an earlier post):

The issue is that a faith without any works is a dead faith. Works are a blessing and a privilege, and not a burden or a requirement. They are not a separate package from faith and salvation, but are a key part of the whole process of being made free from a miserable life controlled by sin and the devil.
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Ephesians 4.30 and 1.13 absolutely are Once saved , stay saved .
 
throughfaith said:
Yes and we know he will be Heaven , that's clear. Are you saying no one in the OT Fell away ?
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Did David?

did god mess up when he called David a man after his heart, could David have possibly proved God a liar?
 
Chester said:
Do you have a verse that says that people in church age are "once saved always saved"?
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Eternal life?

never die, never hunger or thirst, live forever, assured they will raise on the last day?
 
eternally-gratefull said:
There is no such thing

why is it so hard for people to comprehend

you focus to more on works and not enough on faith
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In the first place, I was trying to clarify his doctrine with that question

I believe we are saved by faith alone without works in this grace dispensation (romans 4:5)
 
Guojing said:
Is saved is in past tense

Scarcely be saved is not past tense, but future. Those were Peter words.

I don’t get it though, you already stated to me you believe in James 2, that faith without works is dead. Isn’t peter implying the same thing there?
Click to expand...

Huh? Here is I Peter 4:18:

And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear? KJV

The Greek verb for "be saved" is "sozetai" which is a present passive indicative verb: not even close to the same as "future".
Even the KJV translation here is present tense "be saved". Future tense here would be "will be saved".

So you have me completely baffled when you say Peter's words for "be saved" were future tense!????
 
Chester said:
Huh? Here is I Peter 4:18:

And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear? KJV

The Greek verb for "be saved" is "sozetai" which is a present passive indicative verb: not even close to the same as "future".
Even the KJV translation here is present tense "be saved". Future tense here would be "will be saved".

So you have me completely baffled when you say Peter's words were for saved were future tense!????
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If you begin from 1 peter 1, you will see that, to peter, salvation is always given at the end when Jesus return for Israel

You can also begin from acts 3:19-21 to get that same doctrine from him. Israel sins will only be blotted out during that time of refreshing
 
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