I do agree that every single word in the original languages are important and should be contended for.
The KJV used the word candlesticks in Rev 1. Candlesticks were not invented at the time Rev 1 was written.
The Greek word was
lychnias lampstand. Does it change the meaning? A little. The lampstands were fed with oil and there is symbolism explained in Zech about that. The symbolism is robbed by using the word candlestick.
So your theory that KJV is a better English translation that adheres to the original words was just proved wrong and an example was given proving that the opposite is true.
In this example the word
lampstand should be contended for (if you are sincere) not the word
candlestick.
If your love for the integrity of EVERY SINGLE WORD is sincere then you would contend for the word in the greek
lychnias that should be translated
lampstand because it was not possible that John was shown candlesticks as they had not been invented yet.
Will you argue for the word
candlestick instead of
lampstand because it is in the KJV?
If so, it would sound like belligerence and not intellectual honesty and therefore what would be the purpose of continuing the conversation.
There is no perfect English translation. In some cases the KJV did a better job in my opinion such as Rev 5:9-10 with the word
we, and
us instead of
people and
they. In other cases the ESV did a better job such as Rev 1 and
lampstand instead of
Candlestick.
We have to do our own research for each difference by examining the copies of original manuscripts where there are differences and use textual criticism to make an educated decision as to which translation of a particular sentence is the most reliable.
Your approach seems to be suggesting some kind of blind cult adherence to a translation without examining the manuscript sources for ourselves? Why that is just pure fanaticism, motivated by the root of academic sloth, laziness and ignorance.